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Friday, 5 June 2015

first aid nursing MCQ 3

1) Where is the carotid artery located? 

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand. 
b) On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe. 
c) Behind the kneecap. 
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.  

2) On an infant, where would you check the pulse? 

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand. 
b) On the neck to the right or left side of the windpipe. 
c) Behind the kneecap. 
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.

  
3) For an infant who is choking, you would perform…. 

a) The Hiemlick maneuver. 
b) CPR 
c) Back blows and chest thrusts. 
d) Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades.  
   
4) Breathing emergencies may be caused from….

a) Asthma or Allergic reaction 
b) Hyperventilation 
c) Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest 
d) All of the above  

5) A person, who is unconscious, not breathing, has a weak pulse, needs…. 

a) CPR 
b) Hiemlick maneuver. 
c) Rescue breathing. 
d) Back blows and chest thrusts.
  
6) When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult____ chest thrusts. For an infant you would give____ back blows and____ chest thrusts. 
a) 3,3,3 
b) 5,3,3 
c) 5,5,5 
d) 3,5,5  

7) Which is not a symptom of heart attack. 

a) Chest pain. 
b) Red, hot or dry skin. 
c) Pale or bluish in color. 
d) Profuse sweating. 

8) When performing adult CPR you give…. 
a) 2 slow breaths & 30 chest compressions. 
b) 1 slow breath & 10 chest compressions. 
c) 5 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions. 
d) 3 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions
.  
9) When performing CPR on a child you give…. 
a) 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions. 
b) 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions. 
c) 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions. 
d) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions. 

10) A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is called….. 
a) A scrape 
b) A cut  
c) A bruise 
d) An avulsion
  
11) When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first? 
a) Elevate the injury. 
b) Apply direct pressure. 
c) Apply a loose dressing. 
d) Apply a tourniquet. 

12) Bandages are used for…. 

a) Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood. 
b) To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding. 
c) Ease pain. 
d) Small cuts only. 

13) Dressings and pads…. 

a) Should be removed when blood soaked. New ones should be applied. 
b) Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out. 
c) Are not included in a first aid kit. 
d) Should be applied to a sucking chest wound. 
  

14) Elastic bandages are used…. 

a) To control bleeding 
b) Control swelling and support injuries such as sprains or strains. 
c) To allow circulation to a severed limb. 
d) When applying a splint. 

15) When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand, you  should…. 

a) Remove the object, flush with cool water, and transport to hospital. 
b) Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it. 
c) Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury. 
d) None of the above.  

16) When caring for a victim with a bloody nose you would not…… 

a) Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose. 
b) Apply pressure to upper lip just beneath nose. 
c) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the nostrils together. 
d) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the nostrils together.  

17) A student on your bus has been hit in the mouth and a tooth was knocked out you should…. 

a) Control the bleeding and have student bite down on a rolled sterile dressing in the space left by the tooth. 
b) Save the tooth by placing it in milk or water. 
c) Wrap the tooth in a dry tissue and give to student to take to dentist. 
d) Both a and b  

18) Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding? 

a) Rapid weak pulse, Excessive thirst. 
b) Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish. 
c) Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen. 
d) All of the above. 


19) Wounds that would require stitches are…. 

a) Over an inch long.  
b) Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding. 
c) Human or animal bites. 
d) All of the above.  


20) Which is not a symptom of shock….

a) Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting. 
b) Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. 
c) Restless or irritability. 
d) Rapid breathing or rapid pulse.  


21) A first degree burn…. 

a) Involves only the top layer of skin. 
b) Is red and blistered. 
c) Destroys all layers of skin. 
d) Is the most serious of burns.  

22) When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you…. 

a) Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn. 
b) Use ice or ice water to cool the burn. 
c) Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream.
d) All of the above.  

23) When caring for someone who has suffered an electrical burn, you would not…. 
a) Check breathing and pulse. 
b) Check for possible fractures. 
c) Cool the burned area.  
d) Treat for shock.  

24) You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for…. 

a) An incident involving a lightning strike. 
b) A person found unconscious for unknown reasons. 
c) A fall from the height greater than the victim’s height. 
d) All of the above.  

25) You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they…. 

a) Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. 
b) Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. 
c) Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin. 
d) All of the above.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS

 1 b      2 d       3 c       4 d       5 c     6 c      7 b    8 a    9 d   10 c    
11 b     12 b    13 b     14 b     15 b   16 c    17 d   18 d  19 d   20 b      
21 a     22 a    23 c     24 d     25 d       

first aid nursing MCQ 2

1)  Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical shock. The first thing to do is….

a) Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing. 
b) Ask a bystander to help you move the victim. 
c) Place the victim on one side with the head down. 
d) Make sure the power is turned off.  

2) A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most 

likely wrong? 

a) He is having a seizure. 
b) He has internal bleeding. 
c) He is having a heart attack. 
d) He is having a diabetic emergency.  

3) You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool water if…. 

a) The burns are very deep 
b) There are burns with open blisters. 
c) The burns are minor with no open blisters. 
d) You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above.  


4) In general a splint should be…. 

a) Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured limb. 
b) Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation. 
c) Tied with cravats over the injured area. 
d) None of the above.  

5) A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing fast and seems pail and restless. He is probably…. 

a) Having a stroke. 
b) Having a heart attack. 
c) In shock. 
d) Choking.  

6) You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. Your first call should be to…. 

a) The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number. 
b) The victim’s physician. 
c) The hospital emergency department. 
d) The local pharmacy. 

7) Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim? 

a) Remove nearby objects that might cause injury. 
b) Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the Victim’s teeth. 
c) Try to hold the person still. 
d) All of the above.
  
8) Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when…. 

a) You have to move or transport the victim. 
b) You can do so without hurting the victim. 
c) You have splinting materials available. 
d) Both a and b  

9) For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your local emergency phone number? 

a) A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee. 
b) A 68-year-old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and arms. 
c) A 26-year-old woman who has a sunburn on her shoulders. 
d) All of the above. 


10) A 15-year-old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would…. 

a) Cover the burned area. 
b) Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives. 
c) Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives. 
d) Immediately drive the victim to the hospital.  

11) Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing? 

a) To prevent infection. 
b) To cool burned area. 
c) To keep the burned area warm. 
d) Both a and c  

12) You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would…. 

a) Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight line. 
b) Roll the victim onto one side. 
c) Position victim onto one side. 
d) Attempt to keep the victim from moving.  

13) A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should…. 

a) Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding.  
b) Call your local emergency phone number. 
c) Remove the glass and then control the bleeding. 
d) Both a and b  

14) What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been seriously burned? 

a) Checking the scene for safety. 
b) Checking the victims breathing and pulse. 
c) Calling your local emergency phone number. 
d) Cooling the burned area.  

15) A woman has fallen and burned her ankle. She says she heard something snap. She looks pale and is sweating. What should you do? 

a) Have the victim walk on the injured ankle. 
b) Care for the injury as if it were serious. 
c) Apply heat and elevate the injury. 
d) Apply a dressing and loosely bandage.  


16) Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat related illness. 

a) Keep the victim warm. 
b) Force the victim to drink fluids. 
c) Apply cool wet cloths. 
d) Place the victim in warm water. 

17) You feel a sudden sharp pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at the bottom of your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe. What type of wound do 

you probably have? 

a) Avulsion 
b) Bruise  
c) Scrape 
d) Puncture  

18) Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound? 

a) Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection. 
b) Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured area. (If no broken bones) 
c) Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow. 
d) Both b and c     

19) What should you do if you think a victim has serious internal bleeding? 

a) Apply heat to the injured area. 
b) Call your local emergency phone number for help. 
c) Place the victim in a sitting position.  
d) Give fluids to replace blood loss.  


20) Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury? 

a) Always wearing a safety belt when riding in automobiles. 
b) Limiting intake of alcohol. 
c) Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol. 
d) Both a and b  

21) Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds. 

a) Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing. 
b) Apply pressure at the pressure point. 
c) Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages. 
d) Elevate the wound.
  
22) How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open, bleeding wounds? 

a) Wash your hands immediately after giving care. 
b) Avoid direct contact with blood. 
c) Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap. 
d) All of the above.  

23) You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and elevation, but the bleeding doesn’t stop. Where would you apply pressure to slow the flow of 
blood to a wound on the forearm? 

a) Outside the arm midway between the shoulder and the elbow. 
b) On the inside of the elbow. 
c) Inside the arm between the shoulder and the elbow. 
d) Any of the above will slow the flow of blood.
  
24) Dressing and bandages are used to…. 

a) Reduce the victim's pain. 
b) Reduce internal bleeding. 
c) Help control bleeding and prevent infection. 
d) Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital.  

25) Most injuries are due to situations that…. 

a) You have no control over or could not have been prevented. 
b) You have some control over or could have been prevented. 
c) Involve five or more people. 
d) Involve water sports.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ANSWERS

 1 d      2 b     3 d      4 b      5 c    6 a     7 a    8 d   9 b   10 c    
11 a     12 d    13 d     14 a     15 b   16 c    17 d   18 b  19 b   20 d      
21 a     22 d    23 c     24 c     25 b       

Thursday, 4 June 2015

first aid nursing MCQ 1


1. What is first aid?

 A Completing a primary survey
 B The first help given to the victim of an accident
 C Assessing a victim’s vital signs
 D Treating a victim for shock

2. What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is “not breathing” need?

 A The Heimlich Maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
 B Start CPR immediately
 C Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
 D You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

3. The best treatment for all heart attack victims is immediate CPR.

 TRUE or FALSE

4. Sharp, stabbing twinges of pain in the chest is a sure sign of a heart attack.

  TRUE or FALSE

5. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is: 

 A Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
 B This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
 C Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
 D Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above and one below the break


6. The victim of a poisonous snake bite is not at risk for getting rabies. 

 TRUE or FALSE


7. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called:

 A Septic shock
 B Cardiac arrest
 C Toxic shock syndrome
 D Anaphylactic shock

8. A small animal that is almost invisible, burrows into the skin and causes itching: 

 A Common wood tick
 B Limon-Lyme tick
 C Rocky mountain spotted tick
 D Chigger

9. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
 A Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
 B Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
 C Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
 D Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness


10. The accepted treatment for a nose bleed is: 

 A Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure points to control the bleeding
 B Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils
 C Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels.
 D Lay the victim on his back and treat for shock. Apply heat if available


11. What is the best definition of the “Hurry Cases”?

 A Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
 B Any condition that threatens a victim’s life
 C Any illness where the victim vomits
 D Any accident requiring rescue breathing


12. After you have surveyed an accident scene and provided for your own safety you should: 

 A Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your training
 B Provide primary treatment for shock
 C Call  local emergency number
 D Provide immediate treatment for the “hurry cases”


13. It is not necessary to determine if a person with an obstructed airway has a pulse. 

 TRUE FALSE


14. To treat a first degree burn you should: 

 A Apply a good quality burn cream or ointment
 B Clean the area thoroughly with hot soapy water
 C Apply a constricting band between the burn and the heart
 D Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain


15. A victim that has come in contact with poison ivy should: 

 A Wait at least 20 minutes before washing the effected area with hot water and soap
 B Rinse the effected area immediately with soap and water
 C Continue to wear clothes that have come in contact with the plant
 D Immediately scratch and rub the effected area to provide long-term relief from the itching


16. Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious victim? 

 A Improvised stretcher
 B Four-handed seat carry
 C Two person carry
 D Blanket drag


17.  Assuming you are properly trained, the best procedure to follow for a water rescue is: 

 A Throw, row then go
 B Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support
 C Swim with support, throw a rope or flotation device, reach with a pole from shore
 D Reach, paddle, swim

18. What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder?

 A Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat
 B Use the cross your heart padded chest support method
 C Use the flail chest protection system
 D Apply a modified “Johnson Traction Splint”


19. Which statement about a simple sling is true? 

 A The part of the sling against the chest goes over the shoulder on the injured arm
 B The “pigtail” protects the neck from injury from the sling
 C The injured hand should be four to six inches higher than the elbow
 D The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the injured arm


20. White or grayish-yellow patches on someone’s ears, noses or cheeks are signs of 

 A Frostbite
 B Cold related stress disorder
 C Anaphylactic shock
 D Hypothermia

21. The primary symptom of the advanced stages of hypothermia requiring immediate medical attention is violent shivering. 

 TRUE or FALSE

22. The symptoms of Heat Stroke and Heat Exhaustion are very similar and are often confused. 

 TRUE or FALSE

23. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult: 

 A Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute
 B One cycle of one breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
 C Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute
 D two rescue breath and 30 compressions


24. What is the best procedure for treating a known poisonous snake bite? 

 A Capture the snake. Place it in an ice chest and take the snake and victim to a hospital.
 B Place a constricting bandage 4 inches above the head of the snake to slow the spread of venom
 C Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately
 D Treat the victim for shock and continue the planned activity


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ANSWERS


1. The first help given to the victim of an accident

2.  You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

3.  FALSE

4.  FALSE

5.  This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training

6.  TRUE

7.  Anaphylactic shock

8.  Chigger

9. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels

10. Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels.

11. Any condition that threatens a victim’s life

12. Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your training

13. TRUE

14. Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain

15. Rinse  the effected area immediately with soap and water

16. Four-handed seat carry

17. Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support

18. Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat

19. The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the injured arm

20. Frostbite

21. FALSE

22. FALSE

23. two rescue breath and 30 compressions

24. Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately

Tuesday, 2 June 2015

anatomy and physiology MCQ 5

1. Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissue?
Absorption
Protection
Secretion
All of the above

ans;d

2. Which of the following statements is true?
Squamous epithelial cells are cube shaped
Stratified epithelium consists of a single layer of cells
Stratified cuboidal epithelial will have multiple layers of cells
Simple columnar epithelium consists of flat and scale like cells

ans;c

3. Which of the following statements are false?
Endocrine glands secrete their products internally
Multicellular exocrine glands consist of a single cell type
Goblet cells are unicellular exocrine glands
Tubular exocrine glands are found in the digestive system

ans;c

4. Which is the most abundant tissue in the human body?
Epithelial
Connective
Muscle
Nervous

ans;b

5.Within connective tissue what is the function of the extracellular matrix?
To ensure connective tissue can bear weight and withstand tension
Filter blood and remove waste products
Transmit impulses through connective tissue
Analyse levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide

ans;a

6.Which of the following is not a type of loose connective tissue
Areolar
Reticular
Adipose
Irregular

ans;c

7.Which of the following membranes is also referred to as the serosa?
Mucous
Serous
Dense
Synovial

ans;b

8.Which of the following statements on muscle tissue is true?
Smooth muscle is striated
Skeletal muscle is voluntary
Cardiac muscle is non-striated
Smooth muscle is in-voluntary

ans;d

9.Which tissue type has the greatest capacity to regenerate?
Muscle
Epithelial
Nervous
Connective

ans;b

10.Scar tissue formation is also known as….
Fibrosis
Granulation
Mitosis
Necrosis

ans;a

11. The eccrine glands secrete:
Sebum
Sweat
Melanine
Hormones

ans;b

12. The correct term for containing sample of skin for histological examination is called a:
Surgical shave
Biposy
Aspiration
Injection

ans;b

13.Which of the following term refs to a fungal infection of the foot (athlete's foot):
Impetigo
Acne
Tinea pedis
Scabies

ans;c
'
14. What does the Rule of Nines refer to:
A chart used to assess the total body surface area burned
An allergy test
A tool used to assess a person's eye sight
A test used to work out a person's nutritional status

ans;a

15. Eschar refers to:
Loss of skin elasticity
A dry scab or slough formed on the skin as a result of a burn
An area of red skin
Excessive sweating

ans;b

16. Ultra Violet rays can:
Help to diagnose skin cancer
Do no harm to the skin
Will cause no pain
Can penetrate and change skin cells

ans;d

17. The majority of melanomas are caused by:
Exposure to ultra violet light
A poor diet
Excess fatty tissues
Lack of vitamin D

ans;a

18. What is the Waterlow score:
A risk assessment tool
A tool used to calculate the patient's hydration status
A scoring system used after treatment for acne
A tool used in determining how thick the skin of patient is

ans;a

19. What does the term diaphoresis mean?
Excessive production of sebum
Excessive production of sweat
Excessive skin shedding
Excessive production of tears

ans;b

20. Which division of the nervous system includes the brain:
The autonomic nervous system
The peripheral nervous system
The central nervous system
The somatic nervous system

ans;c

21. Which structure detects changes in temperature?
Pons
Thermoreceptors
Medulla
Pituitary gland

ans;b

22. Which division of the nervous system initiates a response known as fight or flight?
The sympathetic nervous system
The parasympathetic nervous system
The somatic nervous system
None of the above

ans;a

23. Which part of the neurone receives information?
The Node of Ranvier
The myelin sheath
The axon
The dendrite

ans;d

24. The action potential relies upon the movement of which of these ions into and out of the cell?
Calcium and magnesium
Iron and iodine
Sodium and potassium
Sodium and magnesium

ans;c

25. Which of these is an example of a neurotransmitter?
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
All of the above

ans;d

26. How many ventricles does the brain have?
2
3
4
5

asn;c

27. Which area of the brain is responsible for the awareness of sensation?
The cerebellum
The sensory area of the cerebrum
The primary motor region of the cerebrum
The thalamus

ans;b

28. Which cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement?
Occulomotor
Vagus
Trigeminal
Olfactory

ans;a

29. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
28 pairs
29 pairs
30 pairs
31 pairs


ans;d

30. What substance does aldosterone directly regulate the concentration of?
Potassium
Phosphorous
Sodium
Calcium

ans;c

31. What hormone does the pancreatic alpha cell secrete?
Insulin
Somatostatin
Glucagon
Somatotropin

ans;c

32. What stimulates the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland?
Increased blood levels of sodium
Decreased blood levels of sodium
Increased blood levels of glucose
Decreased blood levels of glucose

ans;a

33. In the adult which cells does thyroid hormone not affect?
Pancreas
Stomach
Brain
Heart

ans;c

34. Which one of the following is one of the major targets of parathyroid hormone?
Intestines
Brain
Heart
Liver

ans;a

35.The target organ of TRH is:
The thyroid gland
The pituitary gland
The adrenal gland
The pancreas

ans;b

36.In females the effect of follicle stimulating hormone is:
The final maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of oestrogen
The early maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of oestrogen
The final maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of progesterone
The early maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of progesterone

ans;b

37. Thyroid hormone:
Increases basal metabolic rate
Decreases basal metabolic rate
Has no effect on basal metabolic rate
Has an unknown effect on basal metabolic rate

ans;a

38. Gluconeogenesis is:
The creation of glycogen
The destruction of glycogen
The destruction of glucose
The creation of glucose

ans;d

39. Somatostatin released by the pancreas acts in what way when it affects the other cells of the pancreas?
In an endocrine fashion
In an exocrine fashion
In an autocrine fashion
In a paracrine fashion

ans;d

40. The bone that protects the brain is called the:
Sternum
Cranium
Clavicle
Pelvis

ans;b

41. The key purpose of the ribcage is to:
Protect the urinary bladder
Help with the movement of the intestines
Protect the heart and lungs
Allow the stomach to dilate and contract

ans;c

42. What helps to make bone so strong:
Calcium and phosphorous
Vitamin D
The osteoclasts
Their shape

ans;a

43. The anatomical name for the thigh bone is:
Sternum
Femur
Clavicle
Pelvis

ans;b

44. How many thoracic vertebrae are the in the human body:
6
8
16
12

ans;d

45. Bone is also known as:
Oestrogen
Cartilage
Osseous tissue
Sinew

ans;c

46. The correct term for the end of a bone is:
The terminal ileum
The diaphysis
The epiphysis
The xiphoid

ans;c

47. Most bones in the human body are found in the:
Feet
Cranium
Face
Hands

ans;d

48.Osteoporosis is:
Bone infection
Bone cancer
Bone disease that can lead to increased risk of fractures
Bony outgrowths

ans;c

49. A muscle fibre relaxes when
all the ATP is used up
the actin binding sites are saturated
the nerve stimulus is too forceful
the nerve stimulus is removed

ans;d

50.Rigor mortis occurs in a dead human because
ATP, which is necessary for the detachment of cross bridges, is not being formed
ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, is not being formed
Deterioration of muscle proteins prevents detachment of cross bridges
ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, continues to be formed for several hours after death

ans;a

anatomy and physiology MCQ 4

1. A structure composed of two or more tissues is termed: 
     a. organ 
     b. serous membrane 
     c. complex tissue 
     d. organ system 
  ANS;a

  2. The visceral pleura: 
     a. is the membrane lining surface of the lungs 
     b. is the membrane lining the wall of the thoracic cavity 
     c. is the fluid around the lungs 
     d. is the thinnest portion of the peritoneum 
ANS;a
  
  3. The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except: 
     a. palms facing posterior 
     b. thumbs pointing laterally 
     c. face pointing anteriorly 
     d. body standing upright 
ANS;a
  
  4. Which of the following lies fully ipsilateral to the left iliac region: 
     a. epigastric region 
     b. left hypochondiac region 
     c. right inguinal region 
     d. hypogastric region 
ANS;b
  
  5. The "basic unit of life" is: 
     a. the atom 
     b. water 
     c. the cell 
     d. the chemical level of organization 
ANS;c
  
  6. A homeostatic imbalance: 
     a. must be restored by negative feedback mechanisms 
     b. is considered the cause of most diseases 
     c. is when the internal conditions of the body become more stable 
     d. only occur when positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed 
ANS;b
  
  7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life: 
     a. growth 
     b. responsiveness 
     c. reproduction 
     d. organ systems 
ANS;d
  
  8. The sum of all chemical reactions in the body is termed: 
     a. homeostasis 
     b. physiology 
     c. dynamic feedback 
     d. metabolism 
ANS;d
  
  9. A vertical plane through the body dividing it into right and left is termed: 
     a. sagittal 
     b. lateral 
     c. transverse 
     d. frontal 
ANS;a
  
  10. Which of the following is an example of applied physiology: 
     a. measuring the length of the femur on a fetus using ultrasound 
     b. locating an injury to a tendon in the shoulder using CT imaging 
     c. describing the process of how a toxin interferes with nerve impulse conduction 
     d. identifying the types of cells found in a biopsy sample of lung tissue 
ANS;c
  
  11. The elbow is _____ to the wrist: 
     a. distal 
     b. lateral 
     c. ventral 
     d. proximal 
ANS;d
  
  12. The heart is ____ to the lungs: 
     a. superior 
     b. dorsal 
     c. medial 
     d. lateral 
ANS;c
  
  13. What is the function of serous membranes: 
     a. to prevent fluid loss from an organ 
     b. to reduce friction between internal organs 
     c. to circulate blood around the organ 
     d. to conserve heat within the organ 
ANS;b
  
  14. Histology is the study of: 
     a. cells and membranes 
     b. skin 
     c. organs and organ systems 
     d. tissues 
ANS;d
  
  15. Which of the following involves the injection of radioisotopes into the body: 
     a. radiography 
     b. PET 
     c. CT imaging 
     d. MRI 
ANS;b

  16. A _____ fracture occurred in the hip area.

     a.gluteal
     b.lumbar
     c.costal
     d.coxal

ANS;D

  17.  A mental tumor could be one in the _____.

     a.brain
     b.thigh
     c.jaw 
     d.leg

ANS;C

18. A headache is an example of a _____ pain.

     a.celiac
     b.femoral
     c.cephalic
     d.gluteal

ANS;C

19 The factors responsible for holding the lungs to the thorax wall are ________. 
     a.the smooth muscles of the lung 
     b.the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles alone 
     c.the visceral pleurae and the changing volume of the lungs 
     d.surface tension from pleural fluid and negative pressure in the pleural cavity

Answer: D 

20.The erythrocyte count increases after a while when an individual goes from a low to a high altitude because the _______

    a.temperature is lower at higher altitudes 
    b.basal metabolic rate is higher at high altitudes 
    c.concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is higher at higher altitudes 
    d.concentration of oxygen and/or total atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes

Answer: D 

21. Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the ________. 
    a.ciliated mucous lining in the nose 
    b.abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa 
    c.porous structure of turbinate bones 
    d.action of the epiglottis
Answer: A 

22. Which of the following is not possible? 
    a.Gas flow equals pressure gradient over resistance. 
    b.Pressure gradient equals gas flow over resistance. 
    c.Resistance equals pressure gradient over gas flow. 
    d.The amount of gas flowing in and out of the alveoli is directly proportional to the difference in pressure or pressure gradient between the external atmosphere   

       and the alveoli.

Answer: B 


23.Select the correct statement about the physical factors influencing pulmonary ventilation. 
    a.A decrease in compliance causes an increase in ventilation. 
    b.A lung that is less elastic will require less muscle action to perform adequate ventilation. 
    c.As alveolar surface tension increases, additional muscle action will be required. 
    d.Surfactant helps increase alveolar surface tension.

Answer: C 

24. Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood: 
    a.During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of O2. 
    b.During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently. 
    c.Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity. 
    d.A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal.

Answer: D 


25. Which of the disorders below is characterized by destruction of the walls of the alveoli producing abnormally large air spaces that remain filled with air during 

exhalation? 
    a.pneumonia 
    b.tuberculosis 
    c.emphysema 
    d.coryza

Answer: C 

26. Which of the layers of an artery contains smooth muscles?
    a.tunica interna
    b.tunica externa
    c.tunica media
    d.all of the above

Answer;c

27.The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called:
    a.hepatic portal circulation
    b.systemic circulation
    c.pulmonary circulation
    d.cornnary circulation

answer;a

28.Arteries that directly lead into capillaries are called:
    a.Arterioles
    b.Veins
    c.muscular arteries
    d.venules

answer;a

29. The hepatic portal vein transports:
blood to the brain
    a.nutrient-rich blood to the liver
    b.blood to the skin
    c.transports blood to the heart

answer;b

30.The lymph leaves the lymph node via the:
   a.afferent lymphatic vessel
   b.efferent lymphatic vessel
   c.superior vena cava
   d.aorta

answer; b

31. Which of the following stimulates erythropoiesis?
   a.decreased demand of tissue oxygen
   b.increased demand of tissue oxygen 
   c.increased red blood cell count
   d.increased white blood cell count

answer;b

32.Haemoglobin is a:
   a.Carbohydrate
   b.Antibody
   c.white blood cell
   d.protein 
answer;c

33.How many globin molecules does a polypeptide chains have?
   a.8
   b.4
   c.6
   d.12

answer;b

34. The least numerous of the white blood cells are:
   a.Basophils
   b.Neutrophils
   c.Lymphocytes
   d.monocytes

answer;a

35.Which of the following hormones regulate fluid balance?
   a.erythropoietin
   b.antidiuretic hormone
   c.rennin
   d.oestrogen

answer;b

36. Oedema may result from:
   a.lymphatic blockage
   b .hypertension
   c.drinking large amount of beer
   d.diabetes insipidus

answer; a

37. The plasma membrane of a human cell is:
   a.a membrane that contains pili on its cell surface
   b.a double layer of carbohydrate enclosing the cell
   c.a single layered cell membrane
   d.a double layer of phospholipids

answer;d

38.Plasma membrane proteins on a cell will transport:
   a.oxygen into the cell
   b.carbon dioxide into the cell
   c.molecules through the cell membrane
   d.all of the above

answer;c

39. Cells are composed of:
   a.carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen
   b.hydrogen, carbon, sodium, and potassium
   c.sodium, potassium, calcium and hydrogen
   d.nitrogen, oxygen, calcium and carbon

answer;a

40. The movement of fluid between compartments is regulated by:
   a.osmotic and hydrostatic pressures
   b.ATP
   c.glomerular filtration rate
   d.parathyroid hormone

answer;a

41. Active transport system utilises:
   a.ATP
   b.hydrogen ions
   c.acid-bicarbonate buffer system
   d.phosphate buffer

answer;a

42. Hyponatraemia is:
   a.low sodium
   b.low potassium
   c.low chloride
   d.red blood cell count

answer;a

43. The fluid portion of the blood is:
   a.caffeine
   b.cytasol
   c.lymph
   d.plasma

anwswer;d

44. One purpose of lymph nodes is to:
   a.Trap macrophages
   b.Trap antigens
   c.Trap antibodies
   d.Trap hormones

answer;b

45.Cytokines are chemical messengers which:
   a.Promote inflammation
   b.Kill infecting microorganisms
   c.Produce antibodies
   d.Cause pain

answer;a

46.Phagocytosis takes place in:
   a.Red blood cells
   b.Lymphocytes
   c.Neutrophils
   d.Platelets

answer;c

47.The thymus is where T-cell lymphocytes:
   a.Recognise the body's own cells
   b.Produce antibodies
   c.Phagocytose antigens
   d.Become NK cells

answer;a

48. Examples of opsonins are:
   a.Complement factors; antigens
   b.Eosinophils; phagocytes
   c.Antibodies; antigens
   d.Complement factors; immunoglobulins

answer;d

49.Histamine causes:
   a.The death of infectious microorganisms 
   b.one of the signs and symptoms of inflammation
   c.Some of the functions of T-cell lymphocytes
   d.he bonding of T-cell lymphocytes to infectious microorganisms

answer;b

50. B-cell lymphocytes mature in the:
   a.Brain
   b.Bone marrow
   c.Thymus
   d.Blood

answer;b