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Tuesday 23 June 2015

pharmacology MCQ - 7

                     Essential Principles and Drug Administration                             
1. The name selected by the original manufacturer based on the chemical structure of the drug is the:
A. Chemical name
B. Drug name
C. Generic name
D. Trade name

2. The interaction of one drug increased by the presence of a second drug is known as:
A. Potentiation
B. Addictive effects
C. Antagonism
D. Synergism

3. When two drugs given together have an effect equal to the sum of their respective effects, the interaction is known as:
A. Potentiated
B. Antagonized
C. Agonist
D. Additive

4. Absorption, distribution, and excretion may be increased by which of the following diseases?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Liver disease
D. Hypothyroidism

5. When a drug is 50% protein bound, it means that:
A. 50% of the drug destroys protein
B. 50% of the dose is at work
C. 50% of the drug is excreted in the kidneys
D. Protein must be restricted in the diet

6. Safety of a drug is determined by the degree between:
A. Therapeutic and toxic doses
B. Potency and efficacy
C. Subtherapeutic and toxic levels
D. Side and adverse effects

7. When a drug binds to a receptor to produce a pharmacologic effect, the drug may be called a(n):
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Blocker
D. Accelerator

8. The extent to which drug is absorbed and transported to target tissue is known as:
A. Steady-state accumulation
B. Therapeutic drug levels
C. Bioavailability
D. Distribution

9. Distribution is affected by:
A. Biotransformation
B. Excretion
C. Protein binding
D. Lipid binding

10. An unexpected effect of the drug is known as a(n):
A. Side effect
B. Adverse effect
C. Toxic reaction
D. Allergic reaction

11. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that the following are part of the five rights except:
A. Right dose
B. Right route
C. Right drug
D. Right room

12. When performing an assessment about medication, the drug history should include:
A. Complete vital signs
B. Client’s goal of therapy
C. Reason for medication
D. Administration of OTC medications

13. The volume of SC medication must be no more than:
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1.0 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 3.0 mL

14. Which of the following muscles is a possible site for IM injections?
A. Outer aspect of the hip
B. Shoulder
C. Vastus gluteus
D. Vastus lateralis

15. When deciding on what time of day to give medications, the nurse pays closest attention to the client’s habits regarding:
A. Eating
B. Sleeping
C. Elimination
D. Activity

16. The client’s ability to take oral medications will be hindered by:
A. Age
B. Dental caries
C. Dysphagia
D. Lifestyle

17. Which of the following will determine nursing interventions for a client on medication?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnoses
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

18. When performing an assessment to determine which medications can be used, which of the following elements is most important?
A. Physical examination
B. Allergies
C. Presence of illness
D. Weight

19. Central venous access devices are beneficial in pediatric therapy because:
A. They are difficult to see.
B. They cannot be dislodged.
C. Use of the arms is not restricted.
D. They don’t frighten children.

20. When considering the pharmacotherapeutic effects of drugs administered to clients, the nurse considers which property of most importance:
A. Efficacy
B. Interaction with other drugs
C. Potency
D. Toxicity
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Answers and Rationale


1. Answer: C. Generic name
The chemical name is the chemical name is the chemical structure of the compound. The trade name is a proprietary name owned by the company that creates and registers it. The drug name does not exist.
2. Answer: A. Potentiation
Potentiation occurs when the action of one drug is increased by the action of another. Think of two words potentiate and potential together. The potential of one drug is higher when a second drug is added to it.
3. Answer: D. Additive
An addictive effect occurs when two drugs are given together and their effects is equal to the sum of their respective effects.
4. Answer: A. Hyperthyroidism
Diseases that speed up metabolism, such as hyperthyroidism, will increase absorption, distribution, and elimination. B, C, and D are incorrect because diseases that decrease metabolism, such as hypothyroidism, renal insufficiency, and liver disease, will slow these metabolic processes.
5. Answer: B. 50% of the dose is at work
The percentage of drug NOT protein bound is the amount of drug that is free to exert its effect on the body’s issues. A, C, and D are incorrect because protein binding has nothing to do with the destruction of protein, drug excretion, or protein in the diet. Note that the concept of “50% bound” literally means that 50% is BOUND or connected to protein. This means that the remaining 50% is available.
6. Answer: A. Therapeutic and toxic doses
Safety is determined by the degree between therapeutic and toxic doses. Potency and efficacy are not related to safety. Subtherapeutic levels are not part of safety determinations because if a drug is subtherapeutic it does not exert any desired effect. Side effects are expected, and adverse effects are often the result of toxicity.
7. Answer: A. Agonist
An agonist is the action described in the stem. B and C are synonymous. ELiminate choice D because there is no such action described in drug nomenclature.
8. Answer: C. Bioavailability
Bioavailability is the extent to which a drug is absorbed and transported to target tissue. Steady-state accumulation means that the amount of drug present is sufficient to exert its therapeutic effect. Therapeutic drug levels are serum blood tests used to measure the amount of circulating drug present. Distribution is the process by which drugs are transported to tissues.
9. Answer: C. Protein binding
Distribution depends on protein binding as well as circulation. Biotransformation is the act of metabolizing the drug. Excretion describes the act of eliminating the drug. There is no such thing as lipid binding.
10. Answer: B. Adverse effect
An adverse reaction is a harmful and unexpected reaction. A side effect is expected and predictable. C and D are incorrect because a toxic reaction is a type of adverse reaction.
11. Answer: D. Right room
Right room is not one of the five rights.The five rights are right client, route, dose, drug, and time.
12. Answer: D. Administration of OTC medications
The nurse should determine if the client is taking any other medications, especially OTC medications because their effects are often minimized. Other choices are important part of assessment, but choice D is the most accurate answer.
13. Answer: B. 1.0 mL
The maximum amount of fluid that can be injected into the SC space is 1.0 mL.
14. Answer: D. Vastus lateralis
Possible injection sites for IM administration include ventrogluteal, deltoid, dorsogluteal, vastus lateralis, and rectus femoris.
15. Answer: A. Eating
Eating is the most important of these because food in the stomach must be a consideration.
16. Answer: C. Dysphagia
Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing. This would make administration of oral medications impossible. Other choices do not impair ingestion.
17. Answer: B. Diagnoses
The nursing diagnosis is the conclusion derived from the assessment, and it is the component of the nursing process that drives the interventions.
18. Answer: B. Allergies
Allergies must be determined so that the nurse does not administer a drug that would be dangerous to the client.
19. Answer: C. Use of the arms is not restricted.
The child can move his extremities and function in a normal fashion. This lessens stress associated with position restriction and promotes normal activity. Fear may not be eliminated. All lines can be dislodged. Even small catheters can be readily seen.
20. Answer: A. Efficacy
In pharmacology, efficacy is the maximum response achievable from a drug.

See Also




pharmacology MCQ- 6

RESPIRATORY & GI DRUGS

1. Nurse Rita is giving instructions to her client who is taking antihistamine. Which of the following nurse teachings is appropriate for the client?
A. Avoid ingesting alcohol.
B. Be aware that you may need to take a decongestant.
C. Be aware that you may have increased saliva.
D. Expect a relief in 24 hours.

2. Daniel has vertigo, which antihistamine is best for his condition?
A. Terfenadine
B. Meclizine
C. Hydrocodone
D. Guaifenesin

3. Raul, a 20-year-old student, used to buy OTC drugs whenever he feels sick. Which of the following statements best describes the danger of self-medication with over-the-counter drugs?
A. Clients are not aware of the action of over-the-counter drugs.
B. Clients are not aware of the side effects of over-the-counter drugs.
C. Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription.
D. Clients do not realize the effects of over-the-counter drugs.

4. Shenaya will be having her exam in pharmacology tomorrow. She should be aware that antitussive is indicated to:
A. encourage removal of secretions through coughing.
B. relieve rhinitis.
C. control a productive cough.
D. relieve a dry cough.

5. The nurse should instruct a client who is taking an expectorant to:
A. restrict fluids.
B. increase fluids.
C. avoid vaporizers.
D. take antihistamines.

6. When administering the methylxanthine theophylline, the nurse can expect:
A. Decreased pulmonary function
B. Increased pulmonary function
C. Increased residual volume
B. Decreased tidal volume

7. A client with which of the following conditions may experience a dangerous or fatal side effect of theophylline?
A. Cardiac disorder
B. Diabetes
C. Renal disease
D. Hepatic disease

8. To evaluate the effectiveness of theophylline therapy, which of the following laboratory values must be drawn?
A. Glucose
B. Hematocrit
C. Potassium
D. Theophylline levels

9. The effects of theophylline may be increased by:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Phenytoin
C. Rifampin
D. Cimetidine

10. Which of the following statements describes the action of antacids?
A. Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
B. Antacids block the production of gastric acid.
C. Antacids block dopamine.
D. Antacids enhance action of acetylcholine.

11. Jam is under chemotherapy in which nausea is an expected side effect. Which of the following drugs is indicated to prevent such side effect?
A. metoclopramide
B. cimetidine
C. Tagamet
D. famotidine

12. Which of the following drugs will reduce the effectiveness of sucralfate?
A. ranitidine
B. Carafate
C. metoclopramide
D. meclizine

13. Extrapyramidal symptoms are a side effect of which of the following drugs?
A. ranitidine
B. omeprazole
C. famotidine
D. metoclopramide

14. Which histamine-2 antagonist is associated with the most drug interactions?
A. ranitidine
B. cimetidine
C. Prilosec
D. nizatidine

15. Hydrochloric acid secretion is blocked by which of the following category of drugs?
A. antacids
B. gastric stimulants
C. histamine-2 antagonists
D. antihistamines

16. Which category of drugs prevents/treats constipation by the osmotic drawing of water from extravascular space to intestinal lumen?
A. Stimulants
B. Bulk-forming agents
C. Hyperosmotic agents
D. Lubricants

17. Which of the following is a bulk-forming agent?
A. glycerin
B. lactulose
C. FiberCon
D. Milk of Magnesia

18. A client needs rapid cleansing of the bowel, which category is best used?
A. Bacid
B. Bulk-forming agent
C. Saline laxatives with magnesium
D. Intestinal flora modifiers

19. Which of the following categories is used for diarrhea and constipation?
A. Bulk-forming agents
B. Intestinal flora modifiers
C. Cascara
D. Milk of Magnesia

20. Which of the following may be used for a bowel preparation and is not recommended for treatment of constipation?
A. Correctol
B. Fiberall
C. mineral oil
D. castor oil

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Answers and Rationale

1. Answer: A. Avoid ingesting alcohol.
Because alcohol and antihistamines have sedating properties, concurrent administration of these drugs should be avoided. Antihistamines and decongestants are often given together. Dry mouth is a common side effect, not increased salivation. Not all antihistamines last 24 hours.

2. Answer: B. Meclizine
Meclizine (Antivert) is given for vertigo and motion sickness. Choices C and D are not antihistamines. Choice A is an antihistamine, but meclizine is the standard drug in the treatment of vertigo.

3. Answer: C. Clients minimize the effects of over-the-counter drugs because they are available without prescription.
This choice is correct because it includes the other three risks noted in choices A, B, and D.

4. Answer: D. relieve a dry cough.
An antitussive is a cough suppressant. Choices A and C describe the action of an expectorant. Choice D describes the action of a decongestant.

5. Answer: B. increase fluids.
Increasing fluids will help liquefy secretions and facilitate removal.

6. Answer: B. Increased pulmonary function
Theophylline will improve ventilation so there will be an overall improvement of pulmonary measurements. Other choices are the opposite of what will actually occur with theophylline administration.

7. Answer: A. Cardiac disorder
A client with a heart condition may experience dangerous stimulation from this drug. Theophylline should be administered cautiously with all the other choices, but consequences are most dangerous or possibly fatal for clients with a heart condition.

8. Answer: D. Theophylline levels
Theophylline levels must be drawn to determine if the drug is present in therapeutic amounts in the client’s serum.

9. Answer: D. Cimetidine
Cimetidine will increase the effects of theophylline.

10. Answer: A. Antacids neutralize gastric acid.
Antacids act to bring the pH above 3. Other choices are incorrect because they describe actions of antiacid drugs.

11. Answer: A. metoclopramide
This is the only drug among the choices that is indicated to prevent nausea.

12. Answer: A. ranitidine
Ranitidine decreases the effectiveness of sucralfate because it decreases the acid content of gastric secretion. Choice B is the trade name for sucralfate. Choice C is a gastric stimulant that does not alter pH. Choice D is an antihistamine and its GI effect is antiemetic.

13. Answer: D. metoclopramide
A side effect of metoclopramide is EPS.

14. Answer: B. cimetidine
Cimetidine was the first histamine-2 antagonist developed and is associated with the most toxic drug interactions of the group.

15. Answer: C. histamine-2 antagonists
This is the only category of drugs that reduces the volume of secretions.

16. Answer: C. Hyperosmotic agents
Hyperosmotic agents change the osmotic gradient between the intestine and extravascular space causing water to move into the intestinal lumen and balance the gradient.

17. Answer: C. FiberCon
FiberCon is the bulk-forming agent. Choices A and B are incorrect because they are hyperosmotic agents. Choice D, meanwhile, is a saline laxative.

18. Answer: C. Saline laxatives with magnesium
Saline laxatives are the best agents for rapid bowel cleansing. Bacid is an intestinal flora modifier. Bulk-forming agents will not produce rapid cleansing. Intestinal flora modifiers will not not produce rapid cleansing as well.

19. Answer: A. Bulk-forming agents
Bulk-forming agents are used for diarrhea and constipation.

20. Answer: D. castor oil
Castor oil is not recommended for treatment of constipation because it causes such severe abdominal pain.


pharmacolgy MCQ - 5

Neurologic and Psychiatric Drugs

1. Which group of drugs mimics parasympathetic activity?
A. Cholinergic agents
B. Anticholinergic agents
C. Adrenergic agents
D. Anti adrenergic agents

2. Cholinergic agents are used to:
A. Produce miosis
B. Facilitate neuromuscular blockade
C. Synergize neuromuscular blockers
D. Facilitate tricyclic activity

3. Cholinergics are contraindicated in:
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypotension
D. Asthma

4. Drugs that mimic sympathetic activity are known as:
A. Cholinergics
B. Anticholinergics
C. Adrenergics
D. Antiadrenergics

5. Which of the following metabolic effects may be a consequence of administration of adrenergic agents?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis

6. Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in:
A. Hypertension
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Migraines
D. Obstructive airway disease

7. A side effect of cholinergic administration is:
A. Nausea
B. Diarrhea
C. Increase salivation
D. All of the above

8. Joseph is child diagnosed with attention deficit disorder. Which of the following drugs is commonly used for his condition?
A. methylphenidate (Ritalin)
B. diethylpropion (Nobesine)
C. phendimetrazine (Adipost)
D. caffeine

9. Amphetamines are included in the category of drugs of abuse because of their ability to:
A. Cause nervousness
B. Decrease weight
C. Raise blood pressure
D. Enhance performance

10. The nurse would monitor for decreased effect of amphetamines when these drugs are given with:
A. Caffeine
B. Antidiabetic agents
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. All of the above

11. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that you should never give amphetamines in combination with:
A. Oral hypoglycemics
B. Insulin
C. MAO inhibitors
D. Antihypertensives

12. Use of methylphenidate for attention deficit disorders in children can result in:
A. Tourette’s syndrome
B. Growth suppression
C. Growth spurt
D. A and B

13. Amphetamines and amphetamine-like compounds re most commonly used for:
A. Narcolepsy
B. Attention deficit disorder
C. Exogenous obesity
D. All of the above

14. When administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin), the nurse should:
A. Administer it at a rate 100 mg/min.
B. Protect the drug from light exposure.
C. Mix the drug in dextrose solution.
D. Mix the drug in saline solution.

15. When caring for a client who is receiving phenytoin and warfarin (Coumadin), the nurse would expect which of the following drug-drug interactions?
A. Decreased effectiveness of warfarin
B. Increased effectiveness of phenytoin
C. Increased effectiveness of warfarin
D. Decreased effectiveness of phenytoin

16. The client asks the nurse why he is taking bromocriptine (Parlodel). The nurse’s reply is based in the understanding that bromocriptine mimics the effects of dopamine by:
A. Decreasing dopamine levels in the brain
B. Decreasing the storage of dopamine peripherally
C. Activating dopamine receptors in the brain
D. Inhibiting monoamine oxidase type B

17. Before administering amantadine (Symadine), the nurse should investigate which of the following client statements?
A. “My hands are always shaking.”
B. “I had to take Dilantin 6 months ago.”
C. “I take low-dose enteric aspirin each day.”
D. “Simple tasks seem to take so long to perform.”

18. The priority nursing intervention for a client receiving amantadine is to teach the client to:
A. Monitor the pulse for rate and regularity.
B. Take the last dose of medication at bedtime.
C. Inspect the skin for erythematous rash.
D. Stop taking the drug if the mouth becomes dry.

19. Which of the following assessment is most essential before beginning a drug regimen of an antimuscarinic agent?
A. Date of birth
B. Ethnic background
C. History of diabetes
D. Activity intolerance

20. The nurse evaluates that carbidopa and levodopa (Sinemet) is therapeutically effective if the client has:
A. Decreased GI responses
B. Increased tolerance to pyridoxine
C. Decreased tremors at rest
D. Increased urinary output

21. For which of the following medical conditions would the nurse anticipate that an antianxiety agent would not be indicated?
A. Seizure disorders
B. Alcohol detoxification
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Panic disorder

22. When administering antianxiety medications to an elderly client, which of the following actions by the nurse is essential?
A. Monitor Vital signs.
B. Suggest reduced doses.
C. Taper dose before stopping.
D. Implement a fall prevention protocol.

23. When monitoring a client who is taking benzodiazepines, the nurse should be alert for which CNS side effects?
A. Blurred vision, anorexia, dysarthria
B. Seizures, tremors, diaphoresis
C. Ataxia, sedation, dizziness
D. Libido changes, edema, dystonia

24. Antidepressants generally exert influence by:
A. Increasing the reuptake of noradrenaline
B. Altering the action of the cyproprotein (MAO)
C. Changing the availability of dopamine
D. Changing the availability of select neurotransmitters

25. The nurse performs an initial assessment and nursing history with a client admitted fir a major depression. The client has a history of narrow-angle glaucoma. The nurse’s best action would be to:
A. Encourage the client to use his or her own eyedrops until the drops can be ordered.
B. Administer the TCA as orders, and expect an ophthalmology consult.
C. Administer the TCA as ordered, and monitor for visual changes.
D. Inform the physician of the client’s history before administering the TCA.

26. Antipsychotic drugs are indicated:
A. For treatment of Tourette’s syndrome.
B. For treatment of major depression.
C. As an adjunct in the management of seizures.
D. To cure psychotic disorders.

27. Sheila who has been on a low-potency antipsychotic for 2 weeks has shown minimal response. The most probable explanation is:
A. The client probably has refractory illness.
B. The client needs a stronger medication.
C. It is too early to see a full therapeutic response.
D. The client is definitely not taking the medication.

28. Ansherina who is receiving a traditional antipsychotic agent complains that she is gaining weight. The nurse would:
A. Be aware that this is probably delusional thinking because these agents cause weight loss.
B. Encourage the client to follow a healthy diet and use diet soda to help stabilize her weight.
C. Discuss a switch to a high-potency agent so the weight gain will not be a problem.
D. Establish a contract with the client to carefully follow her high-calorie diet.

29. Drugs classified as centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are most effective in relieving:
A. Spasm due to trauma or inflammation
B. Chronic spasm due to old injury
C. Pain from arthritis
D. Surgical complications

30. Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are used:
A. To treat neuromuscular diseases
B. To treat spinal trauma
C. To relieve spasms from trauma
D. As adjuncts to general anesthesia

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Answers and Rationale

1. Answer: A. Cholinergic agents
Cholinergic drugs mimic the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. Anticholinergic agents antagonize the parasympathetic nervous system. Adrenergic agents stimulate sympathetic nervous system. Antiadrenergic agents block the effect of the sympathetic nervous system.
2. Answer: A. Produce miosis
Miosis is a parasympathetic activity and is therefore the correct choice. B, C and D are incorrect because cholinergic agents are antidotes to neuromuscular blockers and tricyclic antidepressants.
3. Answer: D. Asthma
Bronchial asthma is a contraindication of cholinergics because administration of cholinergics will cause bronchoconstriction.
4. Answer: C. Adrenergics
Drugs that mimic the effects of sympathetic activity are known as adrenergics.
5. Answer: C. Hyperglycemia
A, B, and D are incorrect because the effects of insulin are antagonized by adrenaline or adrenergic agents.
6. Answer: D. Obstructive airway disease
Adrenergic blockers tend to cause bronchoconstriction, so are therefore contraindicated in obstructive pulmonary disease.
7. Answer: D. All of the above
Cholinergic drugs increase GI activity, causing all of these side effects.
8. Answer: A. methylphenidate (Ritalin)
Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is the drug of choice for attention deficit disorder. B and C are commonly used for exogenous obesity. Caffeine is a mild CNS stimulant that is not used for attention deficit disorder.
9. Answer: D. Enhance performance
Drugs that produce a desired effect, such as feelings of euphoria and improved performance, tend to be overused and abused. Nervousness, decreased weight, and increased blood pressure are all effects of amphetamine. However, they are considered drugs of abuse because of their ability to enhance performance and produce a euphoric effect.
10. Answer: B. Antidiabetic agents
Antidiabetic agents tend to decrease the effectiveness of amphetamines. A and C increase the effects of amphetamines.
11. Answer: C. MAO inhibitors
MAO inhibitors must never be given with drugs affecting the CNS because hypertension can occur. Amphetamines can be given with oral hypoglycemics and insulin as long as blood sugar levels are monitored because these can decrease antidiabetic requirements.
12. Answer: D. A and B
Use of Ritalin does not cause a growth spurt. Instead, it can cause Tourette’s syndrome and growth suppression in children.
13. Answer: D. All of the above
The most common uses of amphetamines and amphetamine-like compounds are narcolepsy, exogenous obesity, and attention deficit disorder.
14. Answer: D. Mix the drug in saline solution.
Phenytoin must be mixed in saline solution only. Phenytoin should be administered at a rate of 50 mg/min. There is no need to protect phenytoin from light because it does not destabilize with light exposure. Phenytoin will precipitate when mixed with a dextrose solution.
15. Answer: A. Decreased effectiveness of warfarin
The interaction will reduce the effectiveness of warfarin.
16. Answer: C. Activating dopamine receptors in the brain
Bromocriptine is a dopaminergic agent, and this response refers to its action. Choice A refers to the action of levodopa. Choice B refers to the action of carbidopa and levodopa. Choice D refers to the action of selegiline.
17. Answer: B. “I had to take Dilantin 6 months ago.”
Amantadine is used cautiously in clients with a history of seizures. A and D are clinical manifestations of Parkinson’s disease. Amantadine does not interact negatively with aspirin.
18. Answer: A. Monitor the pulse for rate and regularity.
Dopaminergic agents can cause heart rate changes and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B is incorrect because amantadine can cause insomnia. Choice C is incorrect because an adverse effect of amantadine is a mottled discoloration of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because dry mouth is an expected side effect and not an indication to discontinue amantadine.
19. Answer: A. Date of birth
Antimuscarinic agents are contraindicated in elderly patients.
20. Answer: C. Decreased tremors at rest
Carbidopa and levodopa help restore the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine, thereby controlling the responses of Parkinson’s disease.
21. Answer: C. Parkinson’s disease
Benzodiazepines may exacerbate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
22. Answer: D. Implement a fall prevention protocol.
Increased sedation, dizziness, and hypotension are side effects that place the elderly at high risk for falls. All clients need to have vital signs monitored periodically when taking these medications. Geriatric clients may require reduced doses, but the risk for falls is still present. Dose tapering is not related to age.
23. Answer: C. Ataxia, sedation, dizziness
These are common side effects. Anorexia is a GI effect. Choice B are the result of acute withdrawal. Libido and edema are not CNS-related side effects.
24. Answer: D. Changing the availability of select neurotransmitters
This choice best describes the effect of antidepressants in general.
25. Answer: D. Inform the physician of the client’s history before administering the TCA.
Narrow-angle glaucoma is a contraindication for use of TCAs; therefore, the physician should be informed so that an alternative category can be used.
26. Answer: A. For treatment of Tourette’s syndrome.
Haloperidol (Haldol) is used for this syndrome. Major depression is an affective disorder. When psychotic symptoms accompany depression, antipsychotics may be used to manage the symptoms. However, this choice does not address that situation. Antipsychotics are used with caution in the presence of a history of seizures. Generally, the antipsychotics decrease the seizure threshold. Antipsychotics are used to ameliorate, reduce, or manage psychotic symptoms; they do not provide a cure.
27. Answer: C. It is too early to see a full therapeutic response.
The initial response may be seen 1 to 2 days after initiation of treatment, with full therapeutic response in approximately 6 to 8 weeks.
28. Answer: B. Encourage the client to follow a healthy diet and use diet soda to help stabilize her weight.
These agents have a known side effect of weight gain. Managing dietary intake can assist in the management of the potentially distressing effect.
29. Answer: A. Spasm due to trauma or inflammation
Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are most effective in relieving spasm due to trauma or inflammation.
30. Answer: D. As adjuncts to general anesthesia
Peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants are used as an adjunct to general anesthesia.