1. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’
gestation, the nurse would use which of the following?
- Stethoscope placed midline at the
umbilicus
- Doppler placed midline at the
suprapubic region
- Fetoscope placed midway between
the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
- External electronic fetal monitor
placed at the umbilicus
2. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone
production, which of the following would the nurse include as being produced by
the Leydig cells?
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Testosterone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Gonadotropin releasing hormone
3. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and
position in relation to the umbilicus and midline, which of the following
shouldthe nurse do first?
- Assess the vital signs
- Administer analgesia
- Ambulate her in the hall
- Assist her to urinate
4. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for
breathing techniques during preparation for labor based on the understanding
that breathing techniques are most important in achieving which of the
following?
- Eliminate pain and give the
expectant parents something to do
- Reduce the risk of fetal distress
by increasing uteroplacental perfusion
- Facilitate relaxation, possibly
reducing the perception of pain
- Eliminate pain so that less
analgesia and anesthesia are needed
5. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s
prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates which of the
following?
- Palpable contractions on the
abdomen
- Passive movement of the unengaged
fetus
- Fetal kicking felt by the client
- Enlargement and softening of the
uterus
6. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for discharge,
recommendations for which of the following contraceptive methods would be
avoided?
- Diaphragm
- Female condom
- Oral contraceptives
- Rhythm method
7. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red
swollen area on the right side of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document
this as enlargement of which of the following?
- Clitoris
- Parotid gland
- Skene’s gland
- Bartholin’s gland
8. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of the
embryo that must occur involves which of the following?
- Increase in maternal estrogen
secretion
- Decrease in maternal androgen
secretion
- Secretion of androgen by the
fetal gonad
- Secretion of estrogen by the
fetal gonad
9. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who
is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples?
- Tell her to breastfeed more
frequently
- Administer a narcotic before
breast feeding
- Encourage her to wear a nursing
brassiere
- Use soap and water to clean the
nipples
10.
Which of the following actions
would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the
newborn?
- Placing infant under radiant
warmer after bathing
- Covering the scale with a warmed
blanket prior to weighing
- Placing crib close to nursery
window for family viewing
- Covering the infant’s head with a
knit stockinette
11.
A client 12 weeks’ pregnant
come to the emergency department with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal
bleeding. Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation.The nurse
would document these findings as which of the following?
- Threatened abortion
- Imminent abortion
- Complete abortion
- Missed abortion
12.
A client in her third
trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all the time!” Which of the
following should the nurse recommend?
- Daily enemas
- Laxatives
- Increased fiber intake
- Decreased fluid intake
13.
A patient is in labor and has
just been told she has a breech presentation. The nurse should be particularly
alert for which of the following?
- Quickening
- Ophthalmia neonatorum
- Pica
- Prolapsed umbilical cord
14.
A client at 8 weeks’ gestation
calls complaining of slight nausea in the morning hours. Which of the following
client interventions should the nurse question?
- Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate
of soda in an 8-ounce glass of water
- Eating a few low-sodium crackers
before getting out of bed
- Avoiding the intake of liquids in
the morning hours
- Eating six small meals a day
instead of thee large meals
15.
Immediately after birth the
nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical hearth
rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at
the end of expiration. Which of the following should the nurse do?
- Call the assessment data to the
physician’s attention
- Start oxygen per nasal cannula at
2 L/min.
- Suction the infant’s mouth and
nares
- Recognize this as normal first
period of reactivity
16.
Which of the following would
be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?
- Risk for infection
- Pain
- Knowledge Deficit
- Anticipatory Grieving
17.
When taking an obstetrical
history on a pregnant client who states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks
gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8
weeks,”the nurse should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?
- G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
- G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
- G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
- G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
18.
Which of the following is the
priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum discharge?
- Promoting comfort and restoration
of health
- Exploring the emotional status of
the family
- Facilitating safe and effective
self-and newborn care
- Teaching about the importance of
family planning
19.
After 4 hours of active labor,
the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are not strong
enough to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate
doing?
- Obtaining an order to begin IV
oxytocin infusion
- Administering a light sedative to
allow the patient to rest for several hour
- Preparing for a cesarean section
for failure to progress
- Increasing the encouragement to
the patient when pushing begins
20.
For the client who is using
oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the
pill at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
- Decrease the incidence of nausea
- Maintain hormonal levels
- Reduce side effects
- Prevent drug interactions
21.
A client has a midpelvic
contracture from a previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle accident as a
teenager. The nurse is aware that this could prevent a fetus from passing
through or around which structure during childbirth?
- Symphysis pubis
- Sacral promontory
- Ischial spines
- Pubic arch
22.
For which of the following
clients would the nurse expect that an intrauterine device would not be
recommended?
- Woman over age 35
- Nulliparous woman
- Promiscuous young adult
- Postpartum client
23.
The nurse hears a mother
telling a friend on the telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of the
following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching?
- “Daily soap and water cleansing
is best”
- "Alcohol helps it dry and
kills germs”
- “An antibiotic ointment applied
daily prevents infection”
- “He can have a tub bath each day”
24.
When describing dizygotic
twins to a couple, on which of the following would the nurse base the explanation?
- Two ova fertilized by separate
sperm
- Sharing of a common placenta
- Each ova with the same genotype
- Sharing of a common chorion
25.
A client with severe
preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting
edema. Which of the following would be most important to include in the
client’s plan of care?
- Daily weights
- Seizure precautions
- Right lateral positioning
- Stress reduction
26.
In the late 1950s, consumers
and health care professionals began challenging the routine use of analgesics
and anesthetics during childbirth. Which of the following was an outgrowth of
this concept?
- Labor, delivery, recovery,
postpartum (LDRP)
- Nurse-midwifery
- Clinical nurse specialist
- Prepared childbirth
27.
With a fetus in the
left-anterior breech presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal heart rate
would be most audible in which of the following areas?
- Above the maternal umbilicus and
to the right of midline
- In the lower-left maternal
abdominal quadrant
- In the lower-right maternal
abdominal quadrant
- Above the maternal umbilicus and
to the left of midline
28.
The amniotic fluid of a client
has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the
following?
- Lanugo
- Hydramnio
- Meconium
- Vernix
29.
A postpartum client has a
temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus that is tender when palpated, remains
unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. Which of the
following should the nurse assess next?
- Lochia
- Breasts
- Incision
- Urine
30.
A newborn who has an
asymmetrical Moro reflex response should be further assessed for which of the
following?
- Talipes equinovarus
- Fractured clavicle
- Congenital hypothyroidism
- Increased intracranial pressure
31.
The nurse assesses the vital
signs of a client, 4 hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60;
temperature 100.4ºF; pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the
following should the nurse do first?
- Report the temperature to the
physician
- Recheck the blood pressure with
another cuff
- Assess the uterus for firmness
and position
- Determine the amount of lochia
32.
When measuring a client’s
fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct method of
measurement used by the nurse?
- From the xiphoid process to the
umbilicus
- From the symphysis pubis to the
xiphoid process
- From the symphysis pubis to the
fundus
- From the fundus to the umbilicus
33.
Which of the following would
the nurse use as the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a pregnant
teenager concerned about gaining too much weight during pregnancy?
- 10 pounds per trimester
- 1 pound per week for 40 weeks
- ½ pound per week for 40 weeks
- A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
34.
During a pelvic exam the nurse
notes a purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents this as which of
the following?
- Braxton-Hicks sign
- Chadwick’s sign
- Goodell’s sign
- McDonald’s sign
35.
The client tells the nurse
that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20.
Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?
- September 27
- October 21
- November 7
- December 27
36.
A postpartum primipara asks
the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following
would be the nurse’s best response?
- “Anytime you both want to.”
- “As soon as choose a
contraceptive method.”
- “When the discharge has stopped
and the incision is healed.”
- “After your 6 weeks examination.”
37.
When teaching a group of
adolescents about variations in the length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse
understands that the underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the
following phases?
- Menstrual phase
- Proliferative phase
- Secretory phase
- Ischemic phase
38.
The mother asks the nurse.
“What’s wrong with my son’s breasts? Why are they so enlarged?” Which of the
following would be the best response by the nurse?
- “The breast tissue is inflamed
from the trauma experienced with birth”
- “A decrease in material hormones
present before birth causes enlargement”
- “You should discuss this with
your doctor. It could be a malignancy”
- “The tissue has hypertrophied
while the baby was in the uterus”
39.
When teaching a client about
contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most
effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
- Spermicides
- Diaphragm
- Condoms
- Vasectomy
40.
A newborn weighing 3000 grams
and feeding every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg of body weight every 24 hours
for proper growth and development. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz formula should
this newborn receive at each feeding to meet nutritional needs?
- 2 ounces
- 3 ounces
- 4 ounces
- 6 ounces
41.
During the first 4 hours after
a male circumcision, assessing for which of the following is the priority?
- Infection
- Hemorrhage
- Discomfort
- Dehydration
42.
When developing a plan of care
for a client newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes, which of the following
instructions would be the priority?
- Dietary intake
- Medication
- Exercise
- Glucose monitoring
43.
A multigravida at 38 weeks’
gestation is admitted with painless, bright red bleeding and mild contractions
every 7 to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should be avoided?
- Maternal vital sign
- Fetal heart rate
- Contraction monitoring
- Cervical dilation
44.
The nurse understands that the
fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation?
- Completely flexed
- Completely extended
- Partially extended
- Partially flexed
45.
Which of the following refers
to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception?
- Chromosome
- Blastocyst
- Zygote
- Trophoblast
46.
When preparing to administer
the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select which of the
following sites as appropriate for the injection?
- Deltoid muscle
- Anterior femoris muscle
- Vastus lateralis muscle
- Gluteus maximus muscle
47.
Which of the following would
be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks why she must have
a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
- “You will have to ask your
physician when he returns.”
- “You need a cesarean to prevent
hemorrhage.”
- “The placenta is covering most of
your cervix.”
- “The placenta is covering the
opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”
48.
A client at 24 weeks gestation
has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following would be the priority
when assessing the client?
- Glucosuria
- Depression
- Hand/face edema
- Dietary intake
49.
The nurse assesses the
postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the following
assessments would warrant notification of the physician?
- A dark red discharge on a 2-day
postpartum client
- A pink to brownish discharge on a
client who is 5 days postpartum
- Almost colorless to creamy
discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
- A bright red discharge 5 days
after delivery
50.
The post term neonate with
meconium-stained amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially monitor for
which of the following?
- Respiratory problems
- Gastrointestinal problems
- Integumentary problems
- Elimination problems
ANSWERS
1. B 2. A
3. B 4.D 5.B 6. B 7..D
8 . D
9 .D 10. C
11. B 12. B 13.C
14. A 15. D 16. C
17 .A 18. C 19. C 20 .B
21. B 22. D 23 .D
24. D 25. D 26. C 27 .C 28 .C 29 .B
30 .B
31 .A 32. D 33 .A
34. D 35 .B 36. B 37. C 38 .D 39 .A
40 .A
41. B 42. B 43 .B
44 .C 45 .C 46 .D
47 .A 48. C 49 .C
50 .C
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