medical & surgical nursing MCQ 6

1. Nurse Berlinda is assigned to a 41-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of:

a. 45 units/L
b. 100 units/L
c. 300 units/L
d. 500 units/L 

2. A male client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has been “bored” with the clear liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid item to the client?

a. Tea
b. Gelatin
c. Custard
d. Popsicle 

3. Nurse Juvy is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of the disorder, the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The nurse determines that the client has the best understanding of the dietary measures to follow if the client states an intension to increase the intake of:

a. Pork
b. Milk
c. Chicken
d. Broccoli 

4. Nurse Oliver checks for residual before administering a bolus tube feeding to a client with a nasogastric tube and obtains a residual amount of 150 mL. What is appropriate action for the nurse to take?

a. Hold the feeding
b. Reinstill the amount and continue with administering the feeding
c. Elevate the client’s head at least 45 degrees and administer the feeding
d. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding 

5. A nurse is inserting a nasogastric  tube in an adult male client. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and has difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?

a. Quickly insert the tube
b. Notify the physician immediately
c. Remove the tube and reinsert when the respiratory distress subsides
d. Pull back on the tube and wait until the respiratory distress subsides 

6. Nurse Ryan is assessing for correct placement of a nosogartric tube. The nurse aspirates the stomach contents and check the contents for pH. The nurse verifies correct tube placement if which pH value is noted?

a. 3.5
b. 7.0
c. 7.35
d. 7.5 

7. A nurse is preparing to remove a nasogartric tube from a female client. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following just before the nurse removes the tube?

a. Exhale
b. Inhale and exhale quickly
c. Take and hold a deep breath
d. Perform a Valsalva maneuver 

8. Nurse Joy is preparing to administer medication through a nasogastric tube that is connected to suction. To administer the medication, the nurse would:

a. Position the client supine to assist in medication absorption
b. Aspirate the nasogastric tube after medication administration to maintain patency
c. Clamp the nasogastric tube for 30 minutes following administration of the medication
d. Change the suction setting to low intermittent suction for 30 minutes after medication administration 

9. A nurse is preparing to care for a female client with esophageal varices who has just has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted. The nurse gathers supplies, knowing that which of the following items must be kept at the bedside at all times?

a. An obturator
b. Kelly clamp
c. An irrigation set
d. A pair of scissors 

10. Dr. Smith has determined that the client with hepatitis has contracted the infection form contaminated food. The nurse understands that this client is most likely experiencing what type of hepatitis?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D 

11. A client is suspected of having hepatitis. Which diagnostic test result will assist in confirming this diagnosis?

a. Elevated hemoglobin level
b. Elevated serum bilirubin level
c. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level
d. Decreased erythrocycle sedimentation rate 

12. The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders written for a male client admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. Which physician order should the nurse question if noted on the client’s chart?

a. NPO status
b. Nasogastric tube inserted
c. Morphine sulfate for pain
d. An anticholinergic medication 

13. A female client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which instruction for the client to follow before the test?

a. Fast for 8 hours before the test
b. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
c. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled
d. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation 

14. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment and inspects the skin of the abdomen. The nurse performs which assessment technique next?

a. Palpates the abdomen for size
b. Palpates the liver at the right rib margin
c. Listens to bowel sounds in all for quadrants
d. Percusses the right lower abdominal quadrant 

15. Polyethylene glycol-electrlyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for the female client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea following administration of the solution. What action by the nurse is appropriate?

a. Start an IV infusion
b. Administer an enema
c. Cancel the diagnostic test
d. Explain that diarrhea is expected 

16. The nurse is caring for a male client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is at risk for which vitamin deficiency?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin E 

17. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a female client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question?

a. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Indomethacin (Indocin)
d. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) 

18. The nurse is assessing a male client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse noted that the T tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

a. Clamp the T tube
b. Irrigate the T tube
c. Notify the physician
d. Document the findings 

19. The nurse is monitoring a female client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment findings would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer?

a. Bradycardia
b. Numbness in the legs
c. Nausea and vomiting
d. A rigid, board-like abdomen 

20. A male client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. Which response by the nurse best describes the purpose of a vagotomy?

a. Halts stress reactions
b. Heals the gastric mucosa
c. Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions
d. Decreases food absorption in the stomach 

21. The nurse is caring for a female client following a Billroth II procedure. Which postoperative order should the nurse question and verify?

a. Leg exercises
b. Early ambulation
c. Irrigating the nasogastric tube
d. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises 

22. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client following gastrectomy and instructs the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome?

a. Ambulate following a meal
b. Eat high carbohydrate foods
c. Limit the fluid taken with meal
d. Sit in a high-Fowler’s position during meals 

23. The nurse is monitoring a female client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which of the following indicate this occurrence?

a. Sweating and pallor
b. Bradycardia and indigestion
c. Double vision and chest pain
d. Abdominal cramping and pain 

24. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the male client who had umbilical hernia repair. What should the nurse include in the plan?

a. Irrigating the drain
b. Avoiding coughing
c. Maintaining bed rest
d. Restricting pain medication 

25. The nurse is instructing the male client who has an inguinal hernia repair how to reduce postoperative swelling following the procedure. What should the nurse tell the client?

a. Limit oral fluid
b. Elevate the scrotum
c. Apply heat to the abdomen
d. Remain in a low-fiber diet 

26. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized female client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician?

a. Hypotension
b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Rebound tenderness
d. A hemoglobin level of 12 mg/dL 

27. The nurse is caring for a male client postoperatively following creation of a colostomy. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Sexual dysfunction
b. Body image, disturbed
c. Fear related to poor prognosis
d. Nutrition: more than body requirements, imbalanced 

28. The nurse is reviewing the record of a female client with Crohn’s disease. Which stool characteristics should the nurse expect to note documented in the client’s record?

a. Diarrhea
b. Chronic constipation
c. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
d. Stools constantly oozing form the rectum 

29. The nurse is performing a colostomy irrigation on a male client. During the irrigation, the client begins to complain of abdominal cramps. What is the appropriate nursing action?

a. Notify the physician
b. Stop the irrigation temporarily
c. Increase the height of the irrigation
d. Medicate for pain and resume the irrigation 

30. The nurse is teaching a female client how to perform a colostomy irrigation. To enhance the effectiveness of the irrigation and fecal returns, what measure should the nurse instruct the client to do?

a. Increase fluid intake
b. Place heat on the abdomen
c. Perform the irrigation in the evening
d. Reduce the amount of irrigation solution

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answers 

1.    Answer C. The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 units/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis, the rise in serum amylase levels usually does not exceed three times the normal value. In acute pancreatitis, the value may exceed five times the normal value. Options A and B are within normal limits. Option D is an extremely elevated level seen in acute pancreatitis. 

2.    Answer C. Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream, sherbet, breakfast drinks, milk, pudding and custard, soups that are strained, and strained vegetable juices. A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are relatively transparent. The food items in options A, B, and D are clear liquids. 

3.    Answer A. The client with cirrhosis needs to consume foods high in thiamine. Thiamine is present in a variety of foods of plant and animal origin. Pork products are especially rich in this vitamin. Other good food sources include nuts, whole grain cereals, and legumes. Milk contains vitamins A, D, and B2. Poultry contains niacin. Broccoli contains vitamins C, E, and K and folic acid 

4.    Answer A. Unless specifically indicated, residual amounts more than 100 mL require holding the feeding. Therefore options B, C, and D are incorrect. Additionally, the feeding is not discarded unless its contents are abnormal in color or characteristics. 

5.    Answer D. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube, if the client experiences difficulty breathing or any respiratory distress, withdraw the tube slightly, stop the tube advancement, and wait until the distress subsides. Options B and C are unnecessary. Quickly inserting the tube is not an appropriate action because, in this situation, it may be likely that the tube has entered the bronchus. 

6.    Answer A. If the nasogastric tube is in the stomach, the pH of the contents will be acidic. Gastric aspirates have acidic pH values and should be 3.5 or lower. Option B indicates a slightly acidic pH. Option C indicates a neutral pH. Option D indicates an alkaline pH. 

7.    Answer C. When the nurse removes a nasogastric tube, the client is instructed to take and hold a deep breath. This will close the epiglottis. This allows for easy withdrawal through the esophagus into the nose. The nurse removes the tube with one smooth, continuous pull. 

8.    Answer C. If a client has a nasogastric tube connected to suction, the nurse should wait up to 30 minutes before reconnecting the tube to the suction apparatus to allow adequate time for medication absorption. Aspirating the nasogastric tube will remove the medication just administered. Low intermittent suction also will remove the medication just administered. The client should not be placed in the supine position because of the risk for aspiration. 

9.    Answer C. When the client has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube, a pair of scissors must be kept at the client’s bedside at all times. The client needs to be observed for sudden respiratory distress, which occurs if the gastric balloon ruptures and the entire tube moves upward. If this occurs, the nurse immediately cuts all balloon lumens and removes the tube. An obturator and a Kelly clamp are kept at the bedside of a client with a tracheostomy. An irrigation set may be kept at the bedside, but it is not the priority item. 

10.    Answer A. Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated food or infected food handlers. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted most commonly via infected blood or body fluids. 

11.    Answer B. Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzyme levels, elevated serum bilirubin levels, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rates, and leukopenia. An elevated blood urea nitrogen level may indicate renal dysfunction. A hemoglobin level is unrelated to this diagnosis. 

12.    Answer C.  Meperidine (Demerol) rather than morphine sulfate is the medication of choice to treat pain because morphine sulfate can cause spasms in the sphincter of Oddi. Options A, B, and D are appropriate interventions for the client with acute pancreatitis. 

13.    Answer A. A barium swallow is an x-ray study that uses a substance called barium for contrast to highlight abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract. The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the test, depending on physician instructions. Most oral medications also are withheld before the test. After the procedure, the nurse must monitor for constipation, which can occur as a result of the presence of barium in the gastrointestinal tract. 

14.    Answer C. The appropriate sequence for abdominal examination is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Auscultation is performed after inspection to ensure that the motility of the bowel and bowel sounds are not altered by percussion or palpation. Therefore, after inspecting the skin on the abdomen, the nurse should listen for bowel sounds. 

15.    Answer D. The solution GoLYTELY is a bowel evacuant used to prepare a client for a colonoscopy by cleansing the bowel. The solution is expected to cause a mild diarrhea and will clear the bowel in 4 to 5 hours. Options A, B, and C are inappropriate actions. 

16.    Answer B. Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of the function of the parietal cells. The source of the intrinsic factor is lost, which results in the inability to absorb vitamin B12. This leads to the development of pernicious anemia. The client is not at risk for vitamin A, C, or E deficiency. 

17.    Answer C. Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine. Indomethacin is contraindicated in a client with gastrointestinal disorders. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Digoxin is a cardiac medication. Propranolol (Inderal) is a β-adrenergic blocker. Furosemide, digoxin, and propranolol are not contraindicated in clients with gastric disorders. 

18.    Answer D. Following cholecystectomy, drainage from the T tube is initially bloody and then turns to a greenish-brown color. The drainage is measured as output. The amount of expected drainage will range from 500 to 1000 mL/day. The nurse would document the output. 

19.    Answer D. Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency and is characterized by sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the midepigastric area and spreading over the abdomen, which becomes rigid and board-like. Nausea and vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding. 

20.    Answer C. A vagotomy, or cutting of the vagus nerve, is done to eliminate parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretion. Options A, B, and D are incorrect descriptions of a vagotomy. 

21.    Answer C. In a Billroth II procedure, the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically ordered by the physician. In this situation, the nurse should clarify the order. Options A, B, and D are appropriate postoperative interventions. 

22.    Answer C. Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating, especially following a Billroth II procedure. Early manifestations usually occur within 30 minutes of eating and include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down. The nurse should instruct the client to decrease the amount of fluid taken at meals and to avoid high-carbohydrate foods, including fluids such as fruit nectars; to assume a low-Fowler’s position during meals; to lie down for 30 minutes after eating to delay gastric emptying; and to take antispasmodics as prescribed. 

23.    Answer A. Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down. 

24.    Answer B. Coughing is avoided following umbilical hernia repair to prevent disruption of tissue integrity, which can occur because of the location of this surgical procedure. Bed rest is not required following this surgical procedure. The client should take analgesics as needed and as prescribed to control pain. A drain is not used in this surgical procedure, although the client may be instructed in simple dressing changes. 

25.    Answer B. Following inguinal hernia repair, the client should be instructed to elevate the scrotum and apply ice packs while in bed to decrease pain and swelling. The nurse also should instruct the client to apply a scrotal support when out of bed. Heat will increase swelling. Limiting oral fluids and a low-fiber diet can cause constipation. 

26.    Answer C. Rebound tenderness may indicate peritonitis. Bloody diarrhea is expected to occur in ulcerative colitis. Because of the blood loss, the client may be hypotensive and the hemoglobin level may be lower than normal. Signs of peritonitis must be reported to the physician. 

27.    Answer B. Body image, disturbed relates to loss of bowel control, the presence of a stoma, the release of fecal material onto the abdomen, the passage of flatus, odor, and the need for an appliance (external pouch). No data in the question support options A and C. Nutrition: less than body requirements, imbalanced is the more likely nursing diagnosis. 

28.    Answer A. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non bloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to five stools daily. Over time, the diarrhea episodes increase in frequency, duration, and severity. Options B, C, and D are not characteristics of Crohn’s disease. 

29.    Answer B. If cramping occurs during a colostomy irrigation, the irrigation flow is stopped temporarily and the client is allowed to rest. Cramping may occur from an infusion that is too rapid or is causing too much pressure. The physician does not need to be notified. Increasing the height of the irrigation will cause further discomfort. Medicating the client for pain is not the appropriate action in this situation. 

30.    Answer A. To enhance effectiveness of the irrigation and fecal returns, the client is instructed to increase fluid intake and to take other measures to prevent constipation. Options B, C and D will not enhance the effectiveness of this procedure.

                      

First Aid nursing MCQ 5

1) A boy on the bus goes into diabetic shock, what do you do? 

a) Drive the bus straight to the hospital 
b) Ask him where his insulin is and give him a shot 
c) Do not give him food or drink 
d) Make him comfortable; give him a non-diet drink, candy, or something with sugar in it.

 
2) A student on your bus has a severe cut in the groin area, what do you do? 

a) Cover the wound with a sterile dressing applying direct pressure  
b) Elevate the student’s feet and apply a sterile dressing to the wound, apply pressure to groin area. 
c) Drive the bus to the nearest hospital or fire station 
d) Cover wound with sterile dressing & apply pressure to femoral artery pressure 

3) A boy on your bus has been coughing for over a minute, what should you do? 

a) Begin rescue breathing and call emergency number 
b) Get medical attention as quickly as possible 
c) Encourage the boy to cough and get medical attention as soon ass possible 
d) Encourage the boy to cough and begin giving abdominal thrusts 


4) You have a person who is conscious and refuses help, they laps into an  unconscious state, what should you do?

a) Permission is “Implied” if the victim is unconscious. 
b) Call for emergency to give care. 
c) Call for emergency and wait until professional help arrives. 
d) Both a & b  

5) A girl at one of your bus stops indicates that she was bitten by a snake,  What do you do? 

a) Apply ice to the wound and take to the nearest fire station or hospital 
b) Wash the wound, keeping injured area lower than the heart; get professional medical care within 30 minutes. 
c) Cut a 1” cross at the site if injury and suck the poison out, apply ice. 
d) Elevate injured area, apply ice, and get professional medical care within 30 minutes. 

6) A boy with frostbite on his feet, what should you do? 

a) Rub his feet vigorously until feeling and color return. 
b) Apply hot moist towels to feet and message gently. 
c) Soak feet in warm water not more than 105 degrees, bandage with dry sterile dressing. 
d) Soak feet in warm water not more than 90 degrees; rub feet gently until feeling and color return, then wrap with sterile dressing.  

7) A man is having a heart attack, he has medication with him, what should  You do? 

a) Give the medicine to him placing it under the tongue, Call for emergency. 
b) Assist him with the medicine, Call for emergency, reassure him until help arrives. 
c) Call for emergency, place medicine in mouth and begin CPR. 
d) Have the victim lay down, Call for emergency.

8) A boy enters your bus, you smell alcohol, he passes out before you get to  His bus stop, what should you do? 

a) Take the boy back to school 
b) Stop the bus, check for breathing and pulse, Call for emergency
c) Allow the boy to sleep it off and take him home. 
d) Drive the boy to the nearest fire station or hospital.  

9) A girl has her tooth knocked out and she has found the tooth, which is the best action to take:  

a) Place the tooth under her armpit and take her to the dentist. 
b) Wrap the tooth in sterile gauze and take her to the dentist. 
c) Place the tooth in a closed container of cool milk or water, until she reaches the dentist
d) Have her place the tooth under her tongue until she reaches the dentist. 

10) A girl is not breathing but has a pulse, what would be the best course of  action? 

a) Call for emergency, and begin CPR immediately. 
b) Call for emergency, and begin rescue breathing. 
c) Call for emergency, check for blocked airway, begin CPR. 
d) Call for emergency, and wait for professional medical help to arrive.  


11) Where would you check the pulse on a 12-year-old boy? 

a) On the inside of the arm between the elbow and shoulder. 
b) At the side of the neck 
c) On the inside of the wrist. 
d) Both b & c        

12) A boy has his finger severed off, what action would be the best? 

a) Put the severed end of the finger back in place, wrap entire finger in  Sterile gauze and transport to hospital immediately 
b) Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice transport both finger and the victim to the hospital.  
c) Place the severed finger in a plastic bag, have the boy place the bag under his armpit, transport immediately to the hospital. 
d) Place a tourniquet at the stub where the finger was severed to control bleeding transport to hospital immediately. 


13) What is the CPR procedure for a six-year-old boy? 

a) 15 compressions, 1 breath, 5 cycles in 1 minute 
b) 15 compressions, 2 breaths, 3 cycles in 1 minute 
c) 5 compressions, 1 breath, 12 cycles in 1 minute 
d) 3 compressions, 1 breath, 20 cycles in 1 minute  


14) What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspect has an  electrical burn? 

a) Check for breathing and a pulse 
b) Check to see if electricity is turned off 
c) Check for severe bleeding 
d) Check for shock  

15) A boy is shot with an arrow through the chest and out the back, what would be the best course of action? 

a) Remove the arrow and apply sterile gauze to the wound. 
b) Do not remove the arrow, place several dressing around the arrow to keep it from moving, bandage the dressings in place around the arrow.  
c) Do not remove the arrow; break off the part out the back, bandage with dressing around the arrow to hold it in place. 
d) Remove the arrow, wash the area, and bandage with sterile gauze. 
   
16) A girl is unconscious, she is heavily dressed and her skin is reddish, dry and hot, what should you do? 

a) Call for emergency,begin CPR. 
b) Call for an ambulance; loosen tight clothing, check for breathing and pulse. 
c) Check for breathing and pulse, Call for emergency, get the girl out of the heat, loosen tight clothing, and cool her off any way you can. 
d) None of the above  

17) A boy has a sliver in his eye, you should…. 

a) attempt to remove the splinter with tweezers. 
b) flush the eye with cool water or milk. 
c) Leave the sliver in, Call for help. 
d) Wrap sterile gauze around the head covering both eyes.  


18) Your driving your route and you come across a victim lying in the middle of the road that appears to be unconscious, you should….

a) pull the bus safely to the side of the road place your reflectors around the injured person and call for emergency 
b) Position your bus to protect the victim, turn on your flashing red lights, call for emergency 
c) Pull the bus safely to the side of the road, drag the victim out of the roadway, call for emergency. 
d) Continue driving to the nearest phone, Call for emergency

19) When performing CPR on a child, how deep should the chest compressions be? 

a) 1½ inches. 
b) 2 inches 
c) 2½ inches 
d) 3 inches     

20) When performing CPR on an adult, how deep should the chest compressions be? 

a) 1½ inches. 
b) 2 inches 
c) 2½ inches 
d) 3 inches  

21) A first aid responder should move a victim when…. 

a) it would make it easier to administer first aid. 
b) The victim is in a dangerous position.
c) Never 
d) Both a & b  

22) There are three basic steps you can take in an emergency: 

a) Call, Check, Care 
b) Check, Call, Care 
c) Recognize, Decide, Call 
d) Decide, Execute, Call  

23) You approach a victim that is unconscious and wearing a medical alert tag indicating a diabetic condition. You would: 

a) Begin Rescue Breathing 
b) Begin CPR 
c) Administer the victims insulin 
d) Check victim for breathing & pulse  

24) An eight year old child is unconscious and the airway is blocked. You should: 

a) Give abdominal thrusts 
b) Begin CPR 
c) Begin Rescue Breathing 
d) All of the above  

25) A victim is coughing up blood with bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the abdomen.  Pulse is weak and rapid.  The victim is having signs of  
a) Massive head injuries 
b) Internal Bleeding 
c) Drug Overdose 
d) Possible Poisoning 

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ANSWERS

1 d      2 a     3 c      4 d      5 b    6 c     7 b    8 b   9 c   10 b    
11 b     12 b    13 b     14 b     15 b   16 c    17 c   18 c  19 a   20 b      
21 a     22 b    23 d     24 a     25 b    

first aid Nursing MCQ 4

1) When caring for a student who is allergic to bees and has just been stung, you should…. 

a) Give them an injection with their Epi-pen.
b) Apply a heat pack to ease pain.
c) Apply a cold pack.
d) Both a and c

2) Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are…. 

a) Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat.
b) Swelling of the face neck and tongue.
c) Rash, dizziness, or confusion
d) All of the above.
 
3) When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps. 

a) Apply cold packs.
b) Give cool water or sports drink.
c) Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out.
d) Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation.

4) What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion…. 

a) Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin.
b) Rapid weak pulse.
c) Rapid, shallow breathing.
d) All of the above.

5) Heat stroke…. 

a) Causes very high body temperature.
b) Hot red or dry skin.
c) Rapid weak pulse, shallow breathing.
d) All of the above.

6) When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should not…. 

a) Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees.
b) Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm.
c) Handle area gently.
d) Avoid breaking blisters.

7) Hypothermia…. 

a) Is not life threatening.
b) Victims must be heated up as fast as possible.
c) Is caused by exposure to temperatures below freezing.
d) Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70 degrees.


8) Snakebites can be very serious. When caring for a snakebite victim, which should you not do? 

a) Wash wounds.
b) Apply ice.
c) Keep bitten part still and below the heart.
d) Get professional medical care within 30 minutes.

9) When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths should you give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach? 

a) Hard and fast.
b) Smooth and fast.
c) Slowly and gently.
d) Long and hard.

10) Your role in making the EMS system work effectively includes four steps. 

a) Elevate, Identify, decide, execute.
b) Check, call, care, protect.
c) Recognize, decide, call, provide.
d) None of the above.


11) When should you give rescue breathing? 

a) Conscious choking victim.
b) Unconscious choking victim.
c) Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing.
d) Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse.

12) What would you do if a victim had a body part torn or cut off? 

a) Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze.
b) Place in a plastic bag.
c) Put the plastic bag on ice and take it to the hospital with victim.
d) All of the above.

13) What would you do for a victim who has internal bleeding? 

a) Keep the victim quiet and lying down.
b) Bend knees to make them comfortable.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.

14) To care for a victim with a sucking chest wound, you would? 

a) Cover the wound completely with a sterile gauze pad.
b) Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through.
c) Apply ice pack to the wound.
d) Both a and c

15) Internal bleeding can be caused by: 

a) Injury
b) Illness
c) Medication
d) All of the above.
 
16) When caring for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in? 

a) Upside down by the ankles and shoulders.
b) Face up on a flat surface.
c) Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body.
d) Face down on your knee, with head lower than the body.

17) Soft tissue wounds should be cared for by: 

a) Heat and elastic bandages.
b) Ice and elevation.
c) Apply direct pressure on the area to cut down on bleeding under skin. d) Both b and c

18) What do you do for a chemical burn?

a) Flush with water, dry, and cover.
b) Flush with large amounts of water and cover.
c) Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives.
d) Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives.  

19) What is the most common reason an infant’s heart stops? 

a) Allergies
b) Injury
c) Breathing problems.
d) SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)

20) When can you move a victim? 

a) When you need to care for another victim.
b) When the victim is in danger.
c) When it would be easier to care for the victim.
d) All of the above.
 
21) What do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and you are sure that there is no head, neck, or spine injury. 

a) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward.
b) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly backward.
c) Have the victim lie down on their side.
d) Either a or c

22) What is more serious? 

a) Heat Stroke
b) Heat Exhaustion
c) Heat Cramps
d) Heat Rash

23) To encourage people to help others in emergency situations, most states have enacted laws, which protect you, as a rescuer, from being sued. This is called. 

a) The Good-Will Law
b) The First Aid No-Fault Law
c) The Good Samaritan Law
d) There is no such law

24) Signals of head and spine injuries are: 

a) Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose.
b) Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spine.
c) Has seizures, severe headaches, or slurred speech.
d) Both a and b

25) Shock is a condition where: 
a) The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lungs.
b) The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart.
c) The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body.
d) All of the above.

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ANSWERS


 1 c       2 d       3 b       4 a       5 d     6 b      7 d     8 b    9 c   10 c    
11 d     12 d    13 c     14 b     15 d   16 c    17 d   18 d  19 c   20 b      
21 d     22 a    23 c     24 d     25 c       

first aid nursing MCQ 3

1) Where is the carotid artery located? 

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand. 
b) On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe. 
c) Behind the kneecap. 
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.  

2) On an infant, where would you check the pulse? 

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand. 
b) On the neck to the right or left side of the windpipe. 
c) Behind the kneecap. 
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.

  
3) For an infant who is choking, you would perform…. 

a) The Hiemlick maneuver. 
b) CPR 
c) Back blows and chest thrusts. 
d) Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades.  
   
4) Breathing emergencies may be caused from….

a) Asthma or Allergic reaction 
b) Hyperventilation 
c) Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest 
d) All of the above  

5) A person, who is unconscious, not breathing, has a weak pulse, needs…. 

a) CPR 
b) Hiemlick maneuver. 
c) Rescue breathing. 
d) Back blows and chest thrusts.
  
6) When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult____ chest thrusts. For an infant you would give____ back blows and____ chest thrusts. 
a) 3,3,3 
b) 5,3,3 
c) 5,5,5 
d) 3,5,5  

7) Which is not a symptom of heart attack. 

a) Chest pain. 
b) Red, hot or dry skin. 
c) Pale or bluish in color. 
d) Profuse sweating. 

8) When performing adult CPR you give…. 
a) 2 slow breaths & 30 chest compressions. 
b) 1 slow breath & 10 chest compressions. 
c) 5 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions. 
d) 3 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions
.  
9) When performing CPR on a child you give…. 
a) 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions. 
b) 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions. 
c) 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions. 
d) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions. 

10) A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is called….. 
a) A scrape 
b) A cut  
c) A bruise 
d) An avulsion
  
11) When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first? 
a) Elevate the injury. 
b) Apply direct pressure. 
c) Apply a loose dressing. 
d) Apply a tourniquet. 

12) Bandages are used for…. 

a) Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood. 
b) To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding. 
c) Ease pain. 
d) Small cuts only. 

13) Dressings and pads…. 

a) Should be removed when blood soaked. New ones should be applied. 
b) Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out. 
c) Are not included in a first aid kit. 
d) Should be applied to a sucking chest wound. 
  

14) Elastic bandages are used…. 

a) To control bleeding 
b) Control swelling and support injuries such as sprains or strains. 
c) To allow circulation to a severed limb. 
d) When applying a splint. 

15) When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand, you  should…. 

a) Remove the object, flush with cool water, and transport to hospital. 
b) Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it. 
c) Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury. 
d) None of the above.  

16) When caring for a victim with a bloody nose you would not…… 

a) Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose. 
b) Apply pressure to upper lip just beneath nose. 
c) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the nostrils together. 
d) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the nostrils together.  

17) A student on your bus has been hit in the mouth and a tooth was knocked out you should…. 

a) Control the bleeding and have student bite down on a rolled sterile dressing in the space left by the tooth. 
b) Save the tooth by placing it in milk or water. 
c) Wrap the tooth in a dry tissue and give to student to take to dentist. 
d) Both a and b  

18) Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding? 

a) Rapid weak pulse, Excessive thirst. 
b) Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish. 
c) Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen. 
d) All of the above. 


19) Wounds that would require stitches are…. 

a) Over an inch long.  
b) Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding. 
c) Human or animal bites. 
d) All of the above.  


20) Which is not a symptom of shock….

a) Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting. 
b) Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. 
c) Restless or irritability. 
d) Rapid breathing or rapid pulse.  


21) A first degree burn…. 

a) Involves only the top layer of skin. 
b) Is red and blistered. 
c) Destroys all layers of skin. 
d) Is the most serious of burns.  

22) When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you…. 

a) Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn. 
b) Use ice or ice water to cool the burn. 
c) Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream.
d) All of the above.  

23) When caring for someone who has suffered an electrical burn, you would not…. 
a) Check breathing and pulse. 
b) Check for possible fractures. 
c) Cool the burned area.  
d) Treat for shock.  

24) You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for…. 

a) An incident involving a lightning strike. 
b) A person found unconscious for unknown reasons. 
c) A fall from the height greater than the victim’s height. 
d) All of the above.  

25) You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they…. 

a) Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. 
b) Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. 
c) Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin. 
d) All of the above.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ANSWERS

 1 b      2 d       3 c       4 d       5 c     6 c      7 b    8 a    9 d   10 c    
11 b     12 b    13 b     14 b     15 b   16 c    17 d   18 d  19 d   20 b      
21 a     22 a    23 c     24 d     25 d       

first aid nursing MCQ 2

1)  Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical shock. The first thing to do is….

a) Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing. 
b) Ask a bystander to help you move the victim. 
c) Place the victim on one side with the head down. 
d) Make sure the power is turned off.  

2) A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most 

likely wrong? 

a) He is having a seizure. 
b) He has internal bleeding. 
c) He is having a heart attack. 
d) He is having a diabetic emergency.  

3) You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool water if…. 

a) The burns are very deep 
b) There are burns with open blisters. 
c) The burns are minor with no open blisters. 
d) You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above.  


4) In general a splint should be…. 

a) Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured limb. 
b) Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation. 
c) Tied with cravats over the injured area. 
d) None of the above.  

5) A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing fast and seems pail and restless. He is probably…. 

a) Having a stroke. 
b) Having a heart attack. 
c) In shock. 
d) Choking.  

6) You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. Your first call should be to…. 

a) The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number. 
b) The victim’s physician. 
c) The hospital emergency department. 
d) The local pharmacy. 

7) Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim? 

a) Remove nearby objects that might cause injury. 
b) Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the Victim’s teeth. 
c) Try to hold the person still. 
d) All of the above.
  
8) Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when…. 

a) You have to move or transport the victim. 
b) You can do so without hurting the victim. 
c) You have splinting materials available. 
d) Both a and b  

9) For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your local emergency phone number? 

a) A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee. 
b) A 68-year-old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and arms. 
c) A 26-year-old woman who has a sunburn on her shoulders. 
d) All of the above. 


10) A 15-year-old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would…. 

a) Cover the burned area. 
b) Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives. 
c) Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives. 
d) Immediately drive the victim to the hospital.  

11) Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing? 

a) To prevent infection. 
b) To cool burned area. 
c) To keep the burned area warm. 
d) Both a and c  

12) You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would…. 

a) Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight line. 
b) Roll the victim onto one side. 
c) Position victim onto one side. 
d) Attempt to keep the victim from moving.  

13) A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should…. 

a) Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding.  
b) Call your local emergency phone number. 
c) Remove the glass and then control the bleeding. 
d) Both a and b  

14) What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been seriously burned? 

a) Checking the scene for safety. 
b) Checking the victims breathing and pulse. 
c) Calling your local emergency phone number. 
d) Cooling the burned area.  

15) A woman has fallen and burned her ankle. She says she heard something snap. She looks pale and is sweating. What should you do? 

a) Have the victim walk on the injured ankle. 
b) Care for the injury as if it were serious. 
c) Apply heat and elevate the injury. 
d) Apply a dressing and loosely bandage.  


16) Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat related illness. 

a) Keep the victim warm. 
b) Force the victim to drink fluids. 
c) Apply cool wet cloths. 
d) Place the victim in warm water. 

17) You feel a sudden sharp pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at the bottom of your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe. What type of wound do 

you probably have? 

a) Avulsion 
b) Bruise  
c) Scrape 
d) Puncture  

18) Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound? 

a) Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection. 
b) Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured area. (If no broken bones) 
c) Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow. 
d) Both b and c     

19) What should you do if you think a victim has serious internal bleeding? 

a) Apply heat to the injured area. 
b) Call your local emergency phone number for help. 
c) Place the victim in a sitting position.  
d) Give fluids to replace blood loss.  


20) Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury? 

a) Always wearing a safety belt when riding in automobiles. 
b) Limiting intake of alcohol. 
c) Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol. 
d) Both a and b  

21) Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds. 

a) Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing. 
b) Apply pressure at the pressure point. 
c) Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages. 
d) Elevate the wound.
  
22) How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open, bleeding wounds? 

a) Wash your hands immediately after giving care. 
b) Avoid direct contact with blood. 
c) Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap. 
d) All of the above.  

23) You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and elevation, but the bleeding doesn’t stop. Where would you apply pressure to slow the flow of 
blood to a wound on the forearm? 

a) Outside the arm midway between the shoulder and the elbow. 
b) On the inside of the elbow. 
c) Inside the arm between the shoulder and the elbow. 
d) Any of the above will slow the flow of blood.
  
24) Dressing and bandages are used to…. 

a) Reduce the victim's pain. 
b) Reduce internal bleeding. 
c) Help control bleeding and prevent infection. 
d) Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital.  

25) Most injuries are due to situations that…. 

a) You have no control over or could not have been prevented. 
b) You have some control over or could have been prevented. 
c) Involve five or more people. 
d) Involve water sports.

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ANSWERS

 1 d      2 b     3 d      4 b      5 c    6 a     7 a    8 d   9 b   10 c    
11 a     12 d    13 d     14 a     15 b   16 c    17 d   18 b  19 b   20 d      
21 a     22 d    23 c     24 c     25 b       

first aid nursing MCQ 1

1. What is first aid?

 A Completing a primary survey
 B The first help given to the victim of an accident
 C Assessing a victim’s vital signs
 D Treating a victim for shock

2. What treatment does a victim who’s life threatening condition is “not breathing” need?

 A The Heimlich Maneuver, two rescue breaths and CPR
 B Start CPR immediately
 C Twelve to fifteen rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR
 D You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

3. The best treatment for all heart attack victims is immediate CPR.

 TRUE or FALSE

4. Sharp, stabbing twinges of pain in the chest is a sure sign of a heart attack.

  TRUE or FALSE

5. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is: 

 A Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
 B This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
 C Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
 D Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above and one below the break


6. The victim of a poisonous snake bite is not at risk for getting rabies. 

 TRUE or FALSE


7. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. This condition is called:

 A Septic shock
 B Cardiac arrest
 C Toxic shock syndrome
 D Anaphylactic shock

8. A small animal that is almost invisible, burrows into the skin and causes itching: 

 A Common wood tick
 B Limon-Lyme tick
 C Rocky mountain spotted tick
 D Chigger

9. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
 A Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
 B Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
 C Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
 D Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness


10. The accepted treatment for a nose bleed is: 

 A Use direct pressure, elevation and pressure points to control the bleeding
 B Tilt the head back and tightly squeeze the nostrils
 C Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels.
 D Lay the victim on his back and treat for shock. Apply heat if available


11. What is the best definition of the “Hurry Cases”?

 A Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
 B Any condition that threatens a victim’s life
 C Any illness where the victim vomits
 D Any accident requiring rescue breathing


12. After you have surveyed an accident scene and provided for your own safety you should: 

 A Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your training
 B Provide primary treatment for shock
 C Call  local emergency number
 D Provide immediate treatment for the “hurry cases”


13. It is not necessary to determine if a person with an obstructed airway has a pulse. 

 TRUE FALSE


14. To treat a first degree burn you should: 

 A Apply a good quality burn cream or ointment
 B Clean the area thoroughly with hot soapy water
 C Apply a constricting band between the burn and the heart
 D Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain


15. A victim that has come in contact with poison ivy should: 

 A Wait at least 20 minutes before washing the effected area with hot water and soap
 B Rinse the effected area immediately with soap and water
 C Continue to wear clothes that have come in contact with the plant
 D Immediately scratch and rub the effected area to provide long-term relief from the itching


16. Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious victim? 

 A Improvised stretcher
 B Four-handed seat carry
 C Two person carry
 D Blanket drag


17.  Assuming you are properly trained, the best procedure to follow for a water rescue is: 

 A Throw, row then go
 B Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support
 C Swim with support, throw a rope or flotation device, reach with a pole from shore
 D Reach, paddle, swim

18. What is the appropriate treatment for a suspected broken collarbone or shoulder?

 A Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat
 B Use the cross your heart padded chest support method
 C Use the flail chest protection system
 D Apply a modified “Johnson Traction Splint”


19. Which statement about a simple sling is true? 

 A The part of the sling against the chest goes over the shoulder on the injured arm
 B The “pigtail” protects the neck from injury from the sling
 C The injured hand should be four to six inches higher than the elbow
 D The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the injured arm


20. White or grayish-yellow patches on someone’s ears, noses or cheeks are signs of 

 A Frostbite
 B Cold related stress disorder
 C Anaphylactic shock
 D Hypothermia

21. The primary symptom of the advanced stages of hypothermia requiring immediate medical attention is violent shivering. 

 TRUE or FALSE

22. The symptoms of Heat Stroke and Heat Exhaustion are very similar and are often confused. 

 TRUE or FALSE

23. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult: 

 A Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by 1 breath each minute
 B One cycle of one breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
 C Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute
 D two rescue breath and 30 compressions


24. What is the best procedure for treating a known poisonous snake bite? 

 A Capture the snake. Place it in an ice chest and take the snake and victim to a hospital.
 B Place a constricting bandage 4 inches above the head of the snake to slow the spread of venom
 C Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately
 D Treat the victim for shock and continue the planned activity


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
ANSWERS


1. The first help given to the victim of an accident

2.  You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

3.  FALSE

4.  FALSE

5.  This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training

6.  TRUE

7.  Anaphylactic shock

8.  Chigger

9. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels

10. Have the victim lean forward. Apply gentle pressure on the nostril. Apply cold towels.

11. Any condition that threatens a victim’s life

12. Take charge, remain calm and act with confidence to the level of your training

13. TRUE

14. Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain

15. Rinse  the effected area immediately with soap and water

16. Four-handed seat carry

17. Try to reach from the shore, then throw a rope or rescue device, last go with support

18. Apply a simple sling. Bind the sling to the chest with a cravat

19. The part of the sling furthest away from the chest passes over the shoulder on the injured arm

20. Frostbite

21. FALSE

22. FALSE

23. two rescue breath and 30 compressions

24. Keep the victim calm, keep the bite location lower than the heart, get medical help immediately